22 Airspace & Operations Practice Questions & Answers
Every Airspace & Operations practice question from the Private Pilot Written Test Practice, with the correct answer and a short explanation.
Start practice test →1. An airplane is in level VFR cruise in Class E airspace at 11,500 feet MSL. Under 14 CFR 91.155, what flight visibility and cloud clearances apply?
- A.5 SM of visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 above and 2,000 feet horizontal
- B.5 SM of visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 above and 1 SM horizontal✓ Answer
- C.3 SM of visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 above and 2,000 feet horizontal
- D.3 SM of visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 above and 1 SM horizontal
The 91.155 table changes at 10,000 feet MSL: at or above that altitude, Class E requires 5 SM and 1,000 below / 1,000 above / 1 SM horizontal, because true airspeeds are higher there and more distance is needed to see and avoid traffic. The familiar 3 SM with 500/1,000/2,000 set applies only to Class E below 10,000 feet MSL. Note the threshold is MSL, not AGL.
Source: 14 CFR 91.155, Basic VFR Weather Minimums tableReport a problem with this question
2. Under 14 CFR 91.155, what are the basic VFR weather minimums for flight within Class B airspace?
- A.5 statute miles flight visibility, 1,000 feet below the clouds
- B.3 statute miles flight visibility, remaining clear of clouds✓ Answer
- C.1 statute mile flight visibility, remaining clear of clouds
- D.3 statute miles flight visibility, 500 feet below the clouds
Class B is the one entry in the 91.155 table with no vertical or horizontal cloud-distance figures at all: 3 statute miles and clear of clouds. The reason is that every aircraft inside Class B is individually separated by ATC clearance, so the pilot does not need a cloud buffer to protect against unseen IFR traffic. Candidates routinely overthink this and apply the 500/1,000/2,000 set that belongs to Classes C, D and E.
Source: 14 CFR 91.155, Basic VFR Weather Minimums tableReport a problem with this question
3. During the day, an airplane is operating VFR in Class G airspace at 900 feet AGL. Under 14 CFR 91.155, what minimums apply?
- A.3 statute miles visibility, remaining clear of clouds
- B.3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds
- C.1 statute mile visibility, remaining clear of clouds✓ Answer
- D.1 statute mile visibility, 500 feet below the clouds
Class G is uncontrolled airspace, so the regulation sets the lowest minimums in the table there. At or below 1,200 feet AGL by day the requirement is only 1 statute mile and clear of clouds; the 500-below figure appears once the airplane climbs above 1,200 feet AGL, and 3 statute miles applies at night. Because no ATC service is provided in Class G, see-and-avoid is the only protection, which is why the night values are stricter.
Source: 14 CFR 91.155, Basic VFR Weather Minimums tableReport a problem with this question
4. Under 14 CFR 91.131, what must a pilot obtain before operating an airplane within Class B airspace?
- A.An ATC clearance to enter, obtained before the airplane enters✓ Answer
- B.Two-way radio contact, established before the airplane enters
- C.An ATC clearance, but only when weather is below basic VFR minimums
- D.A Mode C transponder check, completed before the airplane enters
Class B is the only class that requires an explicit clearance to enter, and it applies in any weather because the controller must fit the aircraft into a sequence with airline traffic before it arrives. Hearing the aircraft's call sign on the frequency is not enough; the pilot must hear words to the effect of being cleared into the Class B airspace. Merely establishing two-way communication is the Class C and Class D standard, not the Class B standard.
Source: 14 CFR 91.131(a)Report a problem with this question
5. Approaching Class C airspace, a pilot transmits and the controller replies, "Aircraft calling approach, stand by." Under 14 CFR 91.130, may the pilot enter?
- A.No — Class C entry requires an explicit clearance, which was not given
- B.Yes — Class C requires only that the pilot transmit position and intentions
- C.No — the reply omitted the call sign, so communication is not established✓ Answer
- D.Yes — any reply from the controller establishes two-way communication
Two-way radio communication is established only when the controller responds using the aircraft's call sign, because that is proof the controller has identified this specific aircraft and accepted responsibility for it. A generic "aircraft calling, stand by" shows the controller heard someone but does not know who, so the pilot must remain outside. Had the reply been "N123AB, stand by," communication would be established and entry permitted, since Class C requires established communication rather than a clearance.
Source: 14 CFR 91.130(c); AIM Chapter 3, Class C AirspaceReport a problem with this question
6. Under 14 CFR 91.157, what does a pilot need in order to receive a Special VFR clearance at night in a Class D surface area?
- A.A night currency endorsement and an operable two-way radio
- B.A commercial pilot certificate and an operable transponder
- C.A private pilot certificate and 3 statute miles of ground visibility
- D.An instrument rating and an airplane equipped for instrument flight✓ Answer
Special VFR is limited to the period between sunrise and sunset unless the pilot is instrument rated and the airplane carries the instrument-flight equipment listed in 91.205(d). The logic is that Special VFR trades away the normal cloud and visibility buffer, and at night a pilot who inadvertently enters cloud has almost no visual cues to recover, so the rule demands instrument capability in both the pilot and the airplane. Special VFR itself still requires an ATC clearance, 1 statute mile of visibility and remaining clear of clouds.
Source: 14 CFR 91.157(b)(4)Report a problem with this question
7. Under 14 CFR 91.215, a VFR flight will pass 12 NM from the primary airport of a Class B area at 3,500 feet MSL, staying beneath the Class B floor. What transponder requirement applies?
- A.No transponder is required below the Class B floor unless ATC asks for it
- B.A Mode C transponder is required only above 10,000 feet MSL in that area
- C.A Mode C transponder is required, being within 30 NM of that airport✓ Answer
- D.No transponder is required, because the flight remains outside Class B
The Mode C veil is a 30 NM ring around the primary airport of a Class B area, and it reaches from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL regardless of whether the aircraft ever enters Class B itself. Its purpose is to make every aircraft near a busy terminal area visible with altitude to the controllers and to the collision-avoidance systems of the airliners operating there. A flight 12 NM out at 3,500 feet MSL is inside that ring, so the transponder is required even though the airplane stays under the shelf.
Source: 14 CFR 91.215(b)(2)Report a problem with this question
8. Under 14 CFR 91.225, a pilot will cross directly over a Class C airspace area at 6,500 feet MSL, above the Class C ceiling. Is ADS-B Out required?
- A.No, ADS-B Out is required only at and above 10,000 feet MSL in the 48 states
- B.Yes, but only when the pilot is receiving radar traffic advisories from ATC
- C.No, ADS-B Out applies only inside the lateral and vertical limits themselves
- D.Yes, above the ceiling of Class C within its lateral limits up to 10,000 MSL✓ Answer
The ADS-B Out airspace list mirrors the transponder list and expressly includes the airspace above the ceiling of, and within the lateral limits of, Class B and Class C, up to 10,000 feet MSL. Aircraft climbing out of and descending into the Class C airport pass through that overlying column, so ATC needs to see the overflight. The common trap is the opposite geometry: flying underneath a Class B or Class C shelf puts the airplane in Class E or G, where ADS-B Out is not required unless the 30 NM veil applies.
Source: 14 CFR 91.225(d)Report a problem with this question
9. A VFR flight will pass through a Military Operations Area shown as active. What does the AIM say about this?
- A.The pilot may enter without a clearance but should exercise extreme caution✓ Answer
- B.The pilot must obtain permission from the using agency before entering the area
- C.The pilot must remain clear until the MOA is shown as inactive by NOTAM
- D.The pilot may enter only while receiving VFR flight following from ATC
A Military Operations Area is non-regulatory special use airspace: it exists to separate military training from IFR traffic, so it places no legal restriction on a VFR flight. The AIM therefore tells VFR pilots that they may transit an active MOA but should exercise extreme caution, and should contact the controlling agency for information on the activity in progress. Permission from a using agency is the requirement for a Restricted Area, which is regulatory airspace established by rulemaking.
Source: AIM Chapter 3, Special Use Airspace (Military Operations Areas)Report a problem with this question
10. A temporary flight restriction has been placed over a wildfire under 14 CFR 91.137. Performing the preflight action required by 14 CFR 91.103, how would a pilot learn of it?
- A.By calling the nearest control tower, the only source that issues these areas
- B.By reading the Chart Supplement, which lists them for each affected airport
- C.By reviewing NOTAMs, which is where temporary flight restrictions are published✓ Answer
- D.By checking the current sectional chart, which depicts all temporary restrictions
A temporary flight restriction is created and cancelled on a timescale far shorter than the chart revision cycle, so it can only be distributed by NOTAM. That is why 91.103's requirement to become familiar with all available information concerning the flight is understood to include a NOTAM check on every flight. Printed charts and the Chart Supplement carry permanent special use airspace, but by their nature they cannot show a restriction that appeared this morning.
Source: 14 CFR 91.103 and 14 CFR 91.137Report a problem with this question
11. An airplane is in level VFR cruise on a magnetic course of 275°, more than 3,000 feet above the surface and below 18,000 feet MSL. Under 14 CFR 91.159, which cruising altitude is appropriate?
- A.4,500 feet MSL, because a westbound magnetic course uses even thousands plus 500✓ Answer
- B.4,000 feet MSL, because the rule applies only at and above 18,000 feet MSL
- C.5,000 feet MSL, because VFR cruise uses whole thousands above 3,000 feet AGL
- D.5,500 feet MSL, because a westbound magnetic course uses odd thousands plus 500
A magnetic course of 275° falls in the 180° through 359° half of the compass, which takes even thousands plus 500 feet, so 4,500 feet MSL fits. The rule keys off magnetic course rather than magnetic heading, so a crab angle for wind does not change which set of altitudes applies, and it only bites in level cruise more than 3,000 feet above the surface. Splitting opposite-direction traffic by 1,000 feet and offsetting VFR from IFR by 500 feet is what gives the hemispheric rule its separation value.
Source: 14 CFR 91.159(a)Report a problem with this question
12. Under 14 CFR 91.119, what is the minimum altitude for flight over a congested area of a city?
- A.500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet
- B.2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet
- C.1,000 feet above the surface within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet
- D.1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet✓ Answer
Over a congested area the reference is the highest obstacle within a 2,000-foot horizontal radius, not the ground, because a tower or building beside the flight path is what an engine failure or a descent would run into. The 500-foot figure belongs to other than congested areas, where the airplane must simply stay 500 feet above the surface. Underlying all of it, 91.119 first requires an altitude from which an emergency landing could be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the ground.
Source: 14 CFR 91.119(b)Report a problem with this question
13. Two airplanes are converging at approximately the same altitude, and neither is landing. Under 14 CFR 91.113, which one has the right-of-way?
- A.The airplane that first sighted the other has the right-of-way
- B.The airplane to the other's right has the right-of-way✓ Answer
- C.The airplane at the lower altitude has the right-of-way
- D.The airplane to the other's left has the right-of-way
When two aircraft of the same category converge at about the same altitude, the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way, which puts the converging traffic in the left seat pilot's best field of view when it is his duty to give way. The pilot who must yield may not pass over, under or ahead of the other unless well clear. The lower-aircraft rule is a different rule entirely, applying only to two aircraft approaching an airport to land.
Source: 14 CFR 91.113(d)Report a problem with this question
14. A glider and an airplane are converging at approximately the same altitude. Under 14 CFR 91.113, which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?
- A.The glider, because gliders have the right-of-way over airplanes✓ Answer
- B.The airplane, because powered aircraft have the right-of-way over gliders
- C.The airplane, because it is the less maneuverable of the two aircraft
- D.The glider, but only if it is the aircraft on the other's right
The category order in 91.113(d) runs from least manoeuvrable to most: a balloon has the right-of-way over a glider, a glider over an airship, and an airship over an airplane or rotorcraft, with aircraft towing or refueling another ranking above all other powered aircraft. A glider cannot add power to climb out of a conflict, so the airplane, which can, is the one required to give way. The right-of-way-to-the-right rule applies only when the two aircraft are of the same category.
Source: 14 CFR 91.113(d)Report a problem with this question
15. A light airplane is landing on a runway just used for takeoff by a heavy jet. What does the AIM recommend?
- A.Land in the first third of the runway and exit promptly
- B.Note the jet's rotation point and touch down beyond it
- C.Stay below the jet's climb path and land on the near half
- D.Note the jet's rotation point and touch down before it✓ Answer
Wingtip vortices are generated only from the moment the nosewheel lifts and the wing begins producing lift, so the runway before the heavy jet's rotation point is clean while the air beyond it is not. Landing beyond that point keeps the light airplane's touchdown ahead of where the vortices were shed, and the vortices themselves sink roughly 300 to 500 feet per minute below the generating aircraft's path while drifting downwind. A light quartering tailwind is the worst case because it holds the upwind vortex over the runway.
Source: AIM Chapter 7, Wake TurbulenceReport a problem with this question
16. At a nontowered airport, no traffic pattern information is published for runway 27. Under 14 CFR 91.126, which way should turns be made, and how can it be confirmed?
- A.To the left, confirmed by the traffic pattern indicators in the segmented circle✓ Answer
- B.To the right, confirmed by the traffic pattern indicators in the segmented circle
- C.To the left, confirmed by the direction in which the wind sock is pointing
- D.In either direction, confirmed by a radio call to the nearest flight service
All turns in the traffic pattern are to the left unless approved light signals, visual markings on the airport, or the chart and Chart Supplement designate right traffic for that runway. The traffic pattern indicators are the extended legs attached to the landing strip indicators in the segmented circle, and they show the direction of the base-to-final turn for each runway. A wind sock shows only the wind, which tells the pilot which runway to use but nothing about pattern direction.
Source: 14 CFR 91.126(b); AIM Chapter 4, Airport OperationsReport a problem with this question
17. Inbound to a nontowered airport that has no tower, flight service station, or UNICOM on the field, what frequency should self-announce broadcasts use, and when should they begin?
- A.MULTICOM 122.9 MHz, beginning when entering the downwind leg
- B.Flight service 122.2 MHz, beginning about 10 miles out from the airport
- C.UNICOM 122.8 MHz, beginning about 10 miles out from the airport
- D.MULTICOM 122.9 MHz, beginning about 10 miles out from the airport✓ Answer
MULTICOM 122.9 MHz is the common traffic advisory frequency assigned precisely to the case where an airport has no tower, no flight service station and no UNICOM, so that arriving and departing traffic still has one shared frequency. The AIM asks inbound pilots to self-announce about 10 miles out and again when entering downwind, base and final, and after leaving the runway, so that other traffic can build a mental picture before the aircraft is close. Waiting until downwind gives the pattern traffic no warning.
Source: AIM Chapter 4, Airport Operations (Traffic Advisory Practices at Airports Without Operating Control Towers)Report a problem with this question
18. An airplane on the ground with a failed radio receives a flashing white light signal from the tower. What does it mean?
- A.Taxi clear of the runway that is in use
- B.Return to the starting point on the airport✓ Answer
- C.Cleared to taxi toward the runway in use
- D.Exercise extreme caution and hold position
Flashing white is the one signal in the light gun grid that exists only for aircraft on the ground, and it means return to the starting point on the airport; in flight it has no meaning at all. Flashing green on the ground is the clearance to taxi, flashing red is the instruction to taxi clear of the runway in use, and alternating red and green means exercise extreme caution in both flight and ground columns. A pilot acknowledges a light signal by rocking the wings in daylight or blinking the landing or navigation lights at night.
Source: AIM Chapter 4, ATC Light SignalsReport a problem with this question
19. A VFR pilot suffers a two-way radio communications failure. Under the AIM, which transponder code should be selected?
- A.7600, which tells ATC there is a radio failure✓ Answer
- B.7500, which tells ATC there is unlawful interference
- C.7700, which tells ATC there is an emergency aboard
- D.1200, which shows a VFR flight under normal conditions
Squawking 7600 puts the letters RDOF beside the target on the controller's display, which tells him the aircraft can probably still receive nothing and lets him plan around it and try light signals or a relay. The three special codes are deliberately grouped so they are easy to recall: 7500 for hijack or unlawful interference, 7600 for radio failure, 7700 for emergency. When changing codes, avoid sweeping through them, because a momentary 7500 will trigger a response on the ground.
Source: AIM Chapter 6, Two-way Radio Communications FailureReport a problem with this question
20. On final approach to a runway with a four-light PAPI, the pilot sees three white lights and one red light. What does this indicate?
- A.The airplane is well above the glide path
- B.The airplane is slightly above the glide path✓ Answer
- C.The airplane is exactly on the glide path
- D.The airplane is slightly below the glide path
A four-light PAPI is a single row of units, each aimed at a slightly different angle, so the count of white lights rises as the airplane goes higher: four white is well above, three white and one red is slightly above, two white and two red is on path, one white and three red is slightly below, and four red is well below. More red always means lower, which is the same convention as the VASI, where red over red means dangerously low. Seeing three white here calls for a small reduction in the descent path.
Source: AIM Chapter 2, Airport Lighting Aids (Precision Approach Path Indicator)Report a problem with this question
21. Taxiing at a towered airport, a pilot reaches a marking of two solid and two dashed yellow lines across the taxiway, with the solid lines on the pilot's side. What does it require?
- A.Cross the marking after checking that final approach is clear
- B.Hold short of the marking only when the tower is not in operation
- C.Hold short of the marking until ATC clears the aircraft onto the runway✓ Answer
- D.Cross the marking, since the dashed lines face the aircraft's direction
The runway holding position marking is always painted with the two solid lines on the side away from the runway, so a pilot who sees the solid lines first is approaching the runway and must stop. At a towered airport the aircraft may not cross that line without a specific clearance to cross or to enter the runway; an instruction to taxi to a runway is not authorization to cross it. Reading back every hold-short instruction and following the airport diagram are the primary defences against a runway incursion.
Source: AIM Chapter 2, Airport Markings (Runway Holding Position Markings); 14 CFR 91.129Report a problem with this question
22. While taxiing, a pilot sees a sign with a black background, a yellow inscription reading 22, and a yellow border. What does it mean?
- A.It is a direction sign: runway 22 lies ahead of the aircraft
- B.It is a mandatory sign: hold short of runway 22 here
- C.It is a distance sign: 2,200 feet of runway remain
- D.It is a location sign: the aircraft is on runway 22✓ Answer
Airport sign colour is a code that carries the meaning on its own: black background with a yellow inscription is a location sign telling the pilot where the aircraft is right now, while yellow background with a black inscription is a direction or destination sign telling the pilot where something else lies. Red with white lettering is reserved for mandatory instruction signs such as runway holding positions and no-entry. Runway distance remaining signs are black with a white numeral, not a yellow one, and the numeral counts thousands of feet.
Source: AIM Chapter 2, Airport Signs (Location Signs)Report a problem with this question
Practice questions based on the aeronautical knowledge areas codified at 14 CFR 61.105(b) and on FAA handbooks (the Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, the Airplane Flying Handbook) and the Aeronautical Information Manual. This site is not affiliated with or endorsed by the FAA. Taking the real knowledge test requires an endorsement from an authorized instructor or evidence of completing a ground training course. Charts, weather products and aircraft performance data are republished on a cycle — always fly and test from current official sources. About FAA airman testing →