22 Regulations & Airworthiness Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. An airplane's most recent annual inspection required by 14 CFR 91.409(a) was completed on March 12. Absent any other approval, through what date may that airplane be operated before another annual inspection is required?

   • A.Through March 11 of the following year
   • B.Through March 12 of the following year
   • C.Through March 31 of the following year✓ Answer
   • D.Through December 31 of the following year

   14 CFR 91.409(a) is written in calendar months, and a calendar-month period always runs to the end of the last day of that month. An annual signed off on March 12 therefore keeps the airplane legal through March 31 of the following year, which is why the anniversary date itself is the classic wrong answer.

   Source: 14 CFR 91.409(a)Report a problem with this question

2. 2. Under 14 CFR 91.409(b), an airplane used to give flight instruction for hire was due its 100-hour inspection at a tachometer reading of 3302.5 hours. It was legally flown to a maintenance base and the inspection was completed at 3309.5 hours. At what tachometer reading is the next 100-hour inspection due?

   • A.3402.5 hours✓ Answer
   • B.3399.5 hours
   • C.3409.5 hours
   • D.3412.5 hours

   91.409(b) allows the 100-hour limit to be exceeded by not more than 10 hours, and only while en route to a place where the inspection can be done. That excess time must be included in computing the next 100 hours, so the new due point is measured from 3302.5, giving 3402.5 rather than 3409.5.

   Source: 14 CFR 91.409(b)Report a problem with this question

3. 3. A private pilot will fly a day VFR flight through Class C airspace in an airplane with a transponder installed. Which statement about the tests required by 14 CFR 91.411 and 91.413 is correct?

   • A.The altimeter and static system test is required for this flight, while the transponder test is required only for IFR.
   • B.Both tests are required for this flight, because a transponder is installed and Class C is controlled airspace.
   • C.The transponder test is required for this flight, while the altimeter and static system test is required only for IFR.✓ Answer
   • D.Neither test is required for this flight, because both apply only to operations conducted under instrument flight rules.

   Both checks are due every 24 calendar months, but they apply to different operations. 91.413 requires the transponder test whenever the transponder is used at all, VFR or IFR, while 91.411 applies only to IFR flight in controlled airspace, so on a day VFR flight only the transponder test matters.

   Source: 14 CFR 91.411 and 91.413Report a problem with this question

4. 4. Under 14 CFR 91.409(b), which operation requires that the airplane have had a 100-hour inspection?

   • A.A student pilot making a solo cross-country flight in a rented flying club airplane
   • B.A private pilot carrying three friends who each pay a pro rata share of the fuel and oil
   • C.A private pilot flying his own airplane on a long personal cross-country trip
   • D.A flight instructor giving instruction for hire in an airplane the instructor provides✓ Answer

   91.409(b) ties the 100-hour inspection to for-hire activity: carrying persons for hire, or giving flight instruction for hire in an aircraft the instructor provides. Owners flying themselves, students flying rented airplanes, and passengers who merely share expenses do not trigger it, so only the annual inspection applies to those flights.

   Source: 14 CFR 91.409(b)Report a problem with this question

5. 5. Under 14 CFR 61.57(a), a private pilot has not flown for four months and wants to carry two friends in a tailwheel airplane. What must the pilot accomplish first?

   • A.One takeoff and one landing to a full stop as sole manipulator within the preceding 30 days
   • B.Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop with an instructor within the preceding 12 months
   • C.Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop as sole manipulator within the preceding 90 days✓ Answer
   • D.Three takeoffs and three landings, touch and go permitted, within the preceding 90 days

   61.57(a) requires three takeoffs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls within the preceding 90 days, in the same category and class, before passengers may be carried. Because this is a tailwheel airplane, the rule further requires each landing to be to a full stop; the 12-month instructor idea belongs to the flight review, not to recency.

   Source: 14 CFR 61.57(a)Report a problem with this question

6. 6. Under 14 CFR 61.57(b), a private pilot plans to carry passengers on a flight that will land 90 minutes after sunset. What recent experience is required?

   • A.Three takeoffs and landings, touch and go permitted, in the preceding 90 days, made after official sunset
   • B.Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop in the preceding 12 months, made at least one hour after sunset
   • C.Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop in the preceding 90 days, made at least one hour after sunset✓ Answer
   • D.One takeoff and landing to a full stop in the preceding 90 days, made at least one hour after sunset

   For carrying passengers at night, 61.57(b) defines the period as beginning one hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise, and requires three takeoffs and landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days. Touch-and-go landings that satisfy the daytime rule do not count, and the position-light period in 91.209 (sunset to sunrise) is a different window.

   Source: 14 CFR 61.57(b)Report a problem with this question

7. 7. A private pilot completed a flight review 25 calendar months ago and has taken no practical test, proficiency check, or WINGS phase since. Under 14 CFR 61.56, what is this pilot's status?

   • A.The pilot may act as pilot in command alone, but may not carry any passengers yet
   • B.The pilot may act as pilot in command only after completing another satisfactory flight review✓ Answer
   • C.The pilot may act as pilot in command if three takeoffs and landings were made recently
   • D.The pilot may act as pilot in command for 90 more days under the grace period in the rule

   61.56(c) makes a satisfactory flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months a condition of acting as pilot in command at all, not merely of carrying passengers, and the rule provides no grace period. Passing a practical test or proficiency check, or completing a phase of the FAA WINGS program, can substitute for the review.

   Source: 14 CFR 61.56Report a problem with this question

8. 8. A private pilot flies three friends to a sporting event and they agree to split the cost of the flight. Under 14 CFR 61.113(c), which arrangement is lawful?

   • A.The pilot pays nothing because the three passengers together cover fuel, oil, and rental fees
   • B.The pilot pays one fourth of the fuel, oil, tie-down fees, insurance, and annual inspection
   • C.The pilot pays at least one fourth of the fuel, oil, airport expenditures, and rental fees✓ Answer
   • D.The pilot is reimbursed one half of the fuel, oil, airport expenditures, and rental fees

   61.113(c) is written as a floor on what the pilot pays: the pilot may pay no less than the pro rata share, so with four people aboard the pilot pays at least one fourth. Only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, and rental fees may be shared, so tie-down, insurance, and inspection costs may not be, and the pilot may never come out ahead on the flight.

   Source: 14 CFR 61.113(c)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. Under 14 CFR 61.113(b), when may a private pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in connection with a business or employment?

   • A.When the pilot holds a current third-class medical certificate and files a flight plan before the trip
   • B.When the employer pays the full cost of the flight and the pilot has logged at least 200 hours of flight time
   • C.When the flight is only incidental to that business and no persons or property are carried for compensation or hire✓ Answer
   • D.When the passengers are all employees of the same company and each pays a pro rata share of the cost

   61.113(b) permits a private pilot to fly in connection with a business or employment only when the flight is merely incidental to that business and the aircraft carries no passengers or property for compensation or hire. Who pays the bill is not the test; the general prohibition in 61.113(a) still bars acting as pilot in command for compensation or hire.

   Source: 14 CFR 61.113(b)Report a problem with this question

10. 10. A private pilot posts an offer on a public message board inviting anyone willing to split expenses to take an empty seat on an upcoming flight. Under 14 CFR 61.113 and FAA guidance on expense sharing, why is this not permitted?

    • A.Offering seats to the general public is holding out, which turns the flight into carriage for hire✓ Answer
    • B.Passengers found this way must each hold at least a student pilot certificate to ride along
    • C.Sharing expenses is lawful only when the pilot personally pays the entire cost of the fuel and oil
    • D.A private pilot may share expenses only with relatives or with employees of the same company

    61.113(c) permits expense sharing only among people making the flight for a common purpose, and FAA guidance in Advisory Circular 61-142 treats an open offer to the general public as holding out, which makes the operation common carriage requiring a commercial certificate and operating authority. The defect is the public offer itself, not the amount that changes hands.

    Source: 14 CFR 61.113(c); FAA Advisory Circular 61-142Report a problem with this question

11. 11. Under 14 CFR 61.23, what medical qualification must a pilot hold in order to exercise private pilot privileges in an airplane?

    • A.At least a second-class medical certificate, unless the pilot is operating under BasicMed
    • B.A first-class medical certificate whenever passengers are carried aboard the airplane
    • C.At least a third-class medical certificate, unless the pilot is operating under BasicMed✓ Answer
    • D.No medical qualification at all, provided the pilot holds a valid state driver's license

    61.23(a)(3) requires at least a third-class medical certificate to exercise private pilot privileges, and a first- or second-class certificate also satisfies it because a higher class steps down. The only alternative is the BasicMed qualification allowed by 61.113(i), and 61.53 separately prohibits flight with a known disqualifying medical condition.

    Source: 14 CFR 61.23(a)(3)Report a problem with this question

12. 12. Under 14 CFR 61.3, what must a private pilot have in personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when acting as pilot in command?

    • A.A pilot certificate, photo identification, and a medical certificate when one is required✓ Answer
    • B.A pilot certificate, a logbook showing recent flight experience, and a current sectional
    • C.A pilot certificate, photo identification, and the aircraft maintenance records for the year
    • D.A pilot certificate and a logbook endorsement from the instructor who gave the last review

    61.3(a) requires a required pilot flight crewmember to have the pilot certificate, an acceptable form of photo identification, and a medical certificate when one is required, either in physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. A certificated private pilot need not carry the logbook on every flight, although 61.51 requires those records to be presented on request.

    Source: 14 CFR 61.3(a)Report a problem with this question

13. 13. After landing, a private pilot is approached by a city police officer who asks to see the pilot's certificate. Under 14 CFR 61.3(l), how must the pilot respond?

    • A.The pilot may decline, because the rule names only FAA and NTSB representatives as requesters
    • B.The pilot must present it, because the rule lists any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer✓ Answer
    • C.The pilot may decline, because a local officer must first obtain a written FAA authorization
    • D.The pilot must present it only if that officer also holds a TSA airport security credential

    61.3(l) requires the holder to present the pilot certificate, the medical certificate or BasicMed documents, and photo identification for inspection on request of the Administrator, an authorized NTSB representative, any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer, or an authorized TSA representative. A city police officer falls squarely within that list, so no separate FAA authorization is needed.

    Source: 14 CFR 61.3(l)Report a problem with this question

14. 14. Under 14 CFR 91.203, how must the airworthiness certificate and the registration certificate be handled aboard a civil aircraft?

    • A.Both certificates must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so passengers can read them in flight
    • B.The airworthiness certificate must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance; registration is carried aboard✓ Answer
    • C.The registration certificate must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance; airworthiness is carried aboard
    • D.Both certificates may be kept in the baggage compartment together with the weight and balance data

    91.203(a) requires an appropriate and current airworthiness certificate bearing the aircraft's registration number, plus an effective U.S. registration certificate, to be in the aircraft. 91.203(b) adds that the airworthiness certificate must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so it is legible to passengers or crew; the registration must be aboard but has no display requirement.

    Source: 14 CFR 91.203Report a problem with this question

15. 15. Under the FCC rules in 47 CFR part 87, when must a general aviation airplane carry an aircraft radio station license?

    • A.Only when the airplane is flown on international flights outside the United States✓ Answer
    • B.Only when the airplane is flown at night or in instrument meteorological conditions
    • C.Whenever the airplane enters Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace domestically
    • D.Whenever the airplane carries a two-way radio, including all domestic VFR flights

    The radio station license in the familiar ARROW list is an FCC document issued under 47 CFR part 87, not an FAA one. The FCC dropped the requirement for domestic general aviation flights, but a station license is still required when the aircraft is flown outside the United States, which is why this is the most-missed element of the mnemonic.

    Source: 47 CFR part 87 (FCC aircraft radio station license)Report a problem with this question

16. 16. Under 14 CFR 91.403 and 91.7, how is responsibility for an airplane's airworthiness divided?

    • A.The pilot in command maintains airworthiness; the owner or operator determines safe condition
    • B.The mechanic who signed the last annual maintains it and determines safe condition for a year
    • C.The owner or operator maintains airworthiness and also determines safe condition for the pilot
    • D.The owner or operator maintains airworthiness; the pilot in command determines safe condition✓ Answer

    91.403(a) makes the owner or operator primarily responsible for maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with airworthiness directives issued under part 39. 91.7(b) makes the pilot in command responsible for determining that the aircraft is in condition for safe flight and for discontinuing the flight when an unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural condition appears.

    Source: 14 CFR 91.403(a) and 91.7(b)Report a problem with this question

17. 17. An airplane with no minimum equipment list has an inoperative landing light that is not required for the intended day VFR flight. Under 14 CFR 91.213(d), what must be done before departure?

    • A.The item must be entered in the maintenance log by the pilot and may then be left as it is
    • B.The item must be approved for deferral by air traffic control before the airplane departs
    • C.The item must be repaired before flight, because any inoperative equipment grounds the airplane
    • D.The item must be deactivated or removed and placarded inoperative, and determined not to be a hazard✓ Answer

    With no MEL, 91.213(d) is the only path. The item must not be required by the type certification, the equipment list, 91.205, or an airworthiness directive; it must then be removed or deactivated and placarded INOPERATIVE, with the work recorded under 43.9; and a pilot or mechanic must determine that the inoperative item is not a hazard. A landing light is required by 91.205(c) only for operations for hire.

    Source: 14 CFR 91.213(d)Report a problem with this question

18. 18. Under 14 CFR 43.3(g), which task may a private pilot perform as preventive maintenance on an airplane that the pilot owns and operates outside commercial service?

    • A.Overhauling an engine accessory and making a signed maintenance record entry for the work
    • B.Replacing the landing light bulb and making a signed maintenance record entry for the work✓ Answer
    • C.Replacing a structural fuselage skin panel and making a signed record entry for the work
    • D.Repairing a balanced control surface and making a signed maintenance record entry for the work

    43.3(g) allows the holder of at least a private pilot certificate to perform the preventive maintenance listed in part 43 appendix A on an aircraft owned or operated by that pilot and not used under parts 121, 129, or 135. Replacing bulbs in position and landing lights is on that list, while overhauls, structural repairs, and work on balanced control surfaces are not, and 43.9 requires a record entry describing the work with the date, signature, and certificate number.

    Source: 14 CFR 43.3(g) and part 43 appendix A; 14 CFR 43.9Report a problem with this question

19. 19. Under 14 CFR 91.3, what authority does the pilot in command have when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action?

    • A.The pilot may deviate from any rule of part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency✓ Answer
    • B.The pilot may deviate from part 91 only after obtaining a clearance from air traffic control
    • C.The pilot may deviate from part 91 only while operating outside of controlled airspace
    • D.The pilot may deviate from the flight rules but never from the equipment requirements

    91.3(a) makes the pilot in command directly responsible for, and the final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft, and 91.3(b) permits deviation from any rule of part 91 to the extent required to meet an in-flight emergency. No prior ATC approval is needed, and 91.3(c) requires a written report only if the Administrator asks for one.

    Source: 14 CFR 91.3Report a problem with this question

20. 20. Under 14 CFR 91.17, which condition prohibits a person from acting as a required crewmember of a civil aircraft?

    • A.Having consumed alcohol within the preceding 24 hours, or a blood alcohol level of 0.10 percent or more
    • B.Having consumed alcohol within the preceding 4 hours, or a blood alcohol level of 0.08 percent or more
    • C.Having consumed alcohol within the preceding 8 hours, or a blood alcohol level of 0.04 percent or more✓ Answer
    • D.Having consumed alcohol within the preceding 12 hours, or a blood alcohol level of 0.02 percent or more

    91.17(a) bars acting as a crewmember within 8 hours of consuming any alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of alcohol, with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.04 percent or greater, or while using any drug that affects the person's faculties contrary to safety. The 0.08 percent figure comes from state driving law and is not the aviation standard.

    Source: 14 CFR 91.17(a)Report a problem with this question

21. 21. In cruise flight the rudder control cable jams; the pilot lands safely, the airplane is undamaged, and nobody aboard is injured. Under 49 CFR part 830, what does the operator owe the NTSB?

    • A.Immediate notification of the nearest NTSB office, and a written report only if the Board requests one✓ Answer
    • B.No notification to the NTSB, but a written report filed with the FAA district office within 10 days
    • C.No notification to the NTSB, because nothing was damaged and nobody on board was injured
    • D.Immediate notification of the nearest NTSB office, and a written report filed within the next 10 days

    A flight control system malfunction or failure is one of the serious incidents listed in 830.5, so immediate notification of the nearest NTSB office is required even though nothing was damaged and no one was hurt. The 10-day written report required by 830.15 follows an accident; after an incident a report is filed only when the Board requests it.

    Source: 49 CFR 830.5 and 830.15Report a problem with this question

22. 22. Under 49 CFR 830.2, which occurrence involves substantial damage and therefore meets the definition of an aircraft accident?

    • A.A propeller strike on landing that curls the tips of both blades and requires replacement
    • B.A gear collapse on the runway that damages the gear, the wheels, the tires, and a flap
    • C.An engine failure in a single-engine airplane that requires the engine to be overhauled
    • D.A hard landing that buckles the fuselage and requires replacement of a structural bulkhead✓ Answer

    830.2 defines substantial damage as damage or failure that adversely affects structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics and would normally require major repair or replacement, which a buckled fuselage and a replaced bulkhead clearly do. The same definition expressly excludes engine failure or damage limited to one engine, ground damage to propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, and wingtips.

    Source: 49 CFR 830.2Report a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the aeronautical knowledge areas codified at 14 CFR 61.105(b) and on FAA handbooks (the Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, the Airplane Flying Handbook) and the Aeronautical Information Manual. This site is not affiliated with or endorsed by the FAA. Taking the real knowledge test requires an endorsement from an authorized instructor or evidence of completing a ground training course. Charts, weather products and aircraft performance data are republished on a cycle — always fly and test from current official sources. About FAA airman testing →