24 Process (Technical PM) Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. A project has stable, well-understood requirements that are unlikely to change, and the customer requires a fixed scope delivered as a single release. Which delivery approach is generally the best fit?

   • A.Predictive (waterfall)✓ Answer
   • B.Extreme programming only
   • C.Kanban with no planning
   • D.Adaptive (agile) with short iterations

   A predictive (waterfall) life cycle is best when requirements are stable and well-defined up front, because the scope, schedule and cost can be planned in detail early and delivered in a single pass; adaptive approaches add value chiefly when requirements are uncertain or evolving.

   Source: PMBOK Guide 7th ed., Development Approach and Life Cycle Performance Domain; Agile Practice Guide, Section 3 (selecting a life cycle)Report a problem with this question

2. 2. In an adaptive (agile) project, why is an iterative, incremental approach preferred when requirements are uncertain?

   • A.Frequent feedback lets the team refine requirements and reduce risk of building the wrong thing✓ Answer
   • B.It removes the need for a customer or product owner
   • C.It guarantees a lower total cost than predictive
   • D.It eliminates the need for any planning

   Adaptive approaches deliver working increments frequently and gather feedback each iteration, so the team can adjust requirements based on real learning; this reduces the risk of delivering something that does not meet the actual need when requirements are volatile.

   Source: Agile Practice Guide, Section 2 (Introduction to Agile); PMBOK Guide 7th ed., Uncertainty Performance DomainReport a problem with this question

3. 3. What best describes a hybrid delivery approach?

   • A.Running two unrelated projects at once
   • B.Combining predictive and adaptive elements within one project to fit the work✓ Answer
   • C.Switching vendors midway through the project
   • D.Using agile only for documentation

   A hybrid approach deliberately blends predictive and adaptive practices within the same project—for example, using agile iterations for uncertain components and a predictive plan for stable, well-defined components—so the method is tailored to the nature of each part of the work.

   Source: Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.1 (hybrid life cycles); PMBOK Guide 7th ed., Tailoring sectionReport a problem with this question

4. 4. What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

   • A.A chart of who reports to whom on the team
   • B.A list of project risks ranked by probability
   • C.A schedule of payment milestones
   • D.A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work into smaller, manageable deliverables✓ Answer

   The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the total project scope; breaking work into progressively smaller work packages makes the scope easier to estimate, assign, and control, and its lowest levels support cost and schedule planning.

   Source: PMBOK Guide, Create WBS process; Practice Standard for Work Breakdown StructuresReport a problem with this question

5. 5. A stakeholder repeatedly adds small features to the project without going through any approval process, gradually expanding the scope. This is best described as:

   • A.Rolling wave planning
   • B.Value engineering
   • C.Scope creep✓ Answer
   • D.Progressive elaboration

   Scope creep is the uncontrolled expansion of scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources or approval through change control; it is distinguished from legitimate, approved changes precisely because it bypasses the formal change process.

   Source: PMBOK Guide, Control Scope process; scope creep definition in PMI LexiconReport a problem with this question

6. 6. In agile product development, what is a Minimum Viable Product (MVP)?

   • A.A version with just enough features to deliver value and enable validated learning from users✓ Answer
   • B.The complete, final product with all planned features
   • C.The product backlog document
   • D.A prototype that is never released to users

   An MVP contains only the minimal set of features needed to deliver value and test key assumptions with real users; releasing it early lets the team gather validated learning and adjust the product before investing in additional features.

   Source: Agile Practice Guide, Section 5 (MVP and incremental delivery)Report a problem with this question

7. 7. On a project schedule network, what does the critical path represent?

   • A.The sequence of activities the sponsor cares about most
   • B.The longest path through the network, which determines the shortest possible project duration✓ Answer
   • C.The path containing the most risky activities
   • D.The path with the most expensive activities

   The critical path is the longest sequence of dependent activities through the schedule network and therefore sets the minimum time to complete the project; activities on it have zero total float, so any delay there delays the whole project.

   Source: PMBOK Guide, Develop Schedule — Critical Path MethodReport a problem with this question

8. 8. In precedence diagramming, a Finish-to-Start (FS) dependency means:

   • A.The successor must finish before the predecessor starts
   • B.Both activities must start at the same time
   • C.Both activities must finish at the same time
   • D.The successor cannot start until the predecessor finishes✓ Answer

   A Finish-to-Start relationship means the successor activity cannot begin until the predecessor has finished; it is the most common logical relationship in precedence diagramming and reflects work that must occur in strict sequence.

   Source: PMBOK Guide, Sequence Activities — Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. A team estimates an activity using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic values to account for uncertainty. This is an example of:

   • A.Expert judgment with no data
   • B.Analogous estimating
   • C.Three-point estimating✓ Answer
   • D.Parametric estimating from a single rate

   Three-point estimating uses optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates to produce an expected value and account for uncertainty and risk in a single activity; averaging the range gives a more realistic estimate than a single-point guess.

   Source: PMBOK Guide, Estimate Activity Durations — Three-Point Estimating (PERT)Report a problem with this question

10. 10. In earned value management, what does a Cost Performance Index (CPI) less than 1.0 indicate?

    • A.The project is over budget (spending more than the value earned)✓ Answer
    • B.The project scope is complete
    • C.The project is under budget
    • D.The project is ahead of schedule

    CPI equals earned value divided by actual cost; a value below 1.0 means the project earned less value than the money spent, indicating a cost overrun (cost inefficiency) at that point in time.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Control Costs — Earned Value Analysis (CPI = EV/AC)Report a problem with this question

11. 11. A Schedule Variance (SV) that is negative indicates that a project is:

    • A.Ahead of schedule
    • B.Behind schedule✓ Answer
    • C.Over budget
    • D.Under budget

    Schedule Variance equals earned value minus planned value; a negative result means less work has been completed than planned, so the project is behind schedule. SV addresses schedule performance, not cost.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Control Schedule / Earned Value Analysis (SV = EV − PV)Report a problem with this question

12. 12. A project team decides to eliminate a risky supplier entirely by changing the project plan so that the risky work is no longer needed. Which threat response strategy is this?

    • A.Accept
    • B.Enhance
    • C.Transfer
    • D.Avoid✓ Answer

    Avoiding a threat means eliminating it by changing the plan to remove the cause or protect objectives from its impact; here the plan is altered so the risky work no longer exists, which is the defining feature of the avoid strategy.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Plan Risk Responses — strategies for threats (avoid, transfer, mitigate, escalate, accept)Report a problem with this question

13. 13. Buying insurance or using a fixed-price contract to shift the financial impact of a risk to a third party is an example of which threat response?

    • A.Avoid
    • B.Exploit
    • C.Transfer✓ Answer
    • D.Mitigate

    Transferring a threat shifts the impact and ownership of the risk response to a third party (for example via insurance, warranties, or a fixed-price contract) without eliminating the risk itself; the third party assumes the consequences.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Plan Risk Responses — transfer strategy for threatsReport a problem with this question

14. 14. A team takes early action to reduce the probability of a risk occurring or to lessen its impact if it does occur. This threat response is called:

    • A.Accept
    • B.Share
    • C.Mitigate✓ Answer
    • D.Transfer

    Mitigating a threat reduces the probability of occurrence and/or the impact of the risk to an acceptable level through proactive action; unlike avoidance it does not remove the risk entirely, and unlike transfer the team retains ownership.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Plan Risk Responses — mitigate strategy for threatsReport a problem with this question

15. 15. For a positive risk (opportunity), which strategy aims to ensure the opportunity is definitely realized by removing all uncertainty?

    • A.Mitigate
    • B.Avoid
    • C.Accept
    • D.Exploit✓ Answer

    Exploiting an opportunity means taking action to make certain the opportunity occurs, eliminating the uncertainty by ensuring the positive risk is realized; it is the opportunity counterpart to the avoid strategy for threats.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Plan Risk Responses — strategies for opportunities (exploit, enhance, share, escalate, accept)Report a problem with this question

16. 16. A quality management principle holds that it is generally better and cheaper to prevent defects than to find and fix them through inspection. This principle is:

    • A.Gold plating
    • B.Zero documentation
    • C.Prevention over inspection✓ Answer
    • D.Inspection over prevention

    The prevention-over-inspection principle states that designing quality in to avoid defects is more effective and less costly than detecting and correcting them later, because the cost of nonconformance rises the later a defect is found.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Manage Quality — prevention over inspection concept (from Deming/Crosby)Report a problem with this question

17. 17. Costs of quality include the cost of training, inspection, rework, and warranty claims. Rework and warranty claims are examples of:

    • A.Cost of conformance (prevention)
    • B.Sunk cost
    • C.Opportunity cost
    • D.Cost of nonconformance (failure costs)✓ Answer

    Cost of quality divides into conformance costs (prevention and appraisal, e.g., training and inspection) and nonconformance costs (internal and external failure). Rework and warranty claims are failure costs incurred because quality was not achieved.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Plan Quality Management — Cost of Quality (COQ)Report a problem with this question

18. 18. Under which contract type does the seller (contractor) bear the greatest cost risk if actual costs exceed estimates?

    • A.Firm-fixed-price (FFP)✓ Answer
    • B.Cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF)
    • C.Time and materials (T&M)
    • D.Cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF)

    Under a firm-fixed-price contract the price is set regardless of the seller's actual costs, so if costs overrun the estimate the seller absorbs the loss; this places maximum cost risk on the seller and minimum on the buyer.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Plan Procurement Management — contract types and risk allocationReport a problem with this question

19. 19. Under a cost-reimbursable contract, who primarily bears the risk of cost overruns?

    • A.Neither party bears risk
    • B.The seller
    • C.The buyer✓ Answer
    • D.A neutral third party always

    In a cost-reimbursable contract the buyer reimburses the seller's allowable actual costs plus a fee, so cost overruns are largely passed to the buyer; this shifts cost risk toward the buyer, the opposite of a firm-fixed-price arrangement.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Plan Procurement Management — cost-reimbursable contractsReport a problem with this question

20. 20. In Scrum, what is the primary purpose of the sprint retrospective?

    • A.To plan the work items for the upcoming sprint
    • B.To hold the daily coordination meeting
    • C.To demonstrate the product increment to stakeholders
    • D.To inspect how the team worked and identify process improvements for the next sprint✓ Answer

    The retrospective is held at the end of a sprint for the team to inspect its own process—people, relationships, tools—and to create a plan for improvements to apply in the next sprint; it focuses on the team's way of working, not on the product itself.

    Source: Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2; Scrum Guide — Sprint RetrospectiveReport a problem with this question

21. 21. During the daily standup (daily scrum), what should team members primarily focus on?

    • A.Assigning blame for missed tasks
    • B.Re-estimating the entire product backlog
    • C.Coordinating work and surfacing impediments toward the sprint goal✓ Answer
    • D.Giving a detailed status report to management

    The daily standup is a short, time-boxed event for the development team to synchronize activities, plan the next 24 hours, and identify impediments toward the sprint goal; it is for the team to coordinate, not a status report to management.

    Source: Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2; Scrum Guide — Daily ScrumReport a problem with this question

22. 22. Who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product and managing the product backlog in Scrum?

    • A.The project sponsor
    • B.The Product Owner✓ Answer
    • C.The Scrum Master
    • D.The functional manager

    The Product Owner is accountable for maximizing the value delivered by the team and owns the product backlog—ordering and prioritizing items to reflect business value—whereas the Scrum Master serves the process and the team delivers the work.

    Source: Agile Practice Guide, Section 4 (agile roles); Scrum Guide — Product OwnerReport a problem with this question

23. 23. In a Kanban system, what is the primary purpose of a Work In Progress (WIP) limit?

    • A.To set the total project budget
    • B.To assign each task to a single named owner permanently
    • C.To force the team to work overtime
    • D.To limit the number of items in progress so flow improves and bottlenecks become visible✓ Answer

    A WIP limit caps how many items may be in a given stage at once; by preventing overloading it smooths flow, shortens cycle time, and makes bottlenecks visible so the team can address them, which is the core mechanism of pull-based Kanban.

    Source: Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.1 — Kanban and WIP limits (from Lean/Kanban Method)Report a problem with this question

24. 24. In a predictive project using integrated change control, what should happen when a stakeholder requests a change to an approved baseline?

    • A.Let each team member decide individually whether to apply it
    • B.Evaluate the change's impact and route it through the change control process for a decision before implementing✓ Answer
    • C.Reject all changes automatically
    • D.Implement the change immediately to keep the stakeholder happy

    Perform Integrated Change Control requires that requested changes to a baseline be assessed for impact on scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk, then approved or rejected (often by a change control board) before implementation, so changes are managed in a controlled, integrated way.

    Source: PMBOK Guide, Perform Integrated Change Control processReport a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the PMI PMP Examination Content Outline and standard project-management frameworks (PMBOK Guide, Agile Practice Guide). PMP and PMBOK are marks of the Project Management Institute; this site is not affiliated with or endorsed by PMI. Study the official Exam Content Outline and confirm current requirements before testing. About the PMP exam →