31 General Patient Care Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. A patient has just left an exam room, and the next patient is waiting. Which routine best prepares the room for the next patient?

   • A.Sterilize the exam table and restock only what was used
   • B.Disinfect surfaces, change table paper, restock, and check dates✓ Answer
   • C.Change table paper only; disinfect surfaces at the end of the day
   • D.Spray surfaces and change paper; check supplies once a week

   Between every patient, the medical assistant disinfects the table and other high-touch surfaces, replaces the table paper, and restocks supplies while checking expiration dates, so the next patient is not exposed to the previous patient's microorganisms or to outdated supplies. Putting off disinfection or supply checks leaves that risk in place, and sterilization is a process for instruments, not for the exam table.

   Ref QB-PZ845XSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: prepare exam/procedure roomReport a problem with this question

2. 2. While setting up a sterile tray, a medical assistant drops a sterile gauze package onto the drape, and it lands within the outer 1 inch of the drape's edge. What should she do?

   • A.Treat it as contaminated and replace it✓ Answer
   • B.Slide it to the center with sterile forceps
   • C.Keep it if it landed with its wrapper down
   • D.Leave it, since the whole drape is sterile

   The outer 1-inch border of a sterile drape counts as nonsterile because it can touch unsterile surfaces, so anything that lands there is contaminated. Sliding the item toward the center would carry that contamination onto the sterile area. The item must be removed and replaced with a new sterile one.

   Ref QB-8HSKVYSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: sterile field guidelines (1-inch nonsterile border)Report a problem with this question

3. 3. A medical assistant is opening sterile packages onto a sterile tray for a minor procedure. Which practice keeps the field sterile?

   • A.Reach across the field to drop items on the far side
   • B.Keep the tray and supplies above waist level and in view✓ Answer
   • C.Pour solution with the bottle held over the field's center
   • D.Turn away briefly to grab a forgotten item from a drawer

   Anything below waist level or out of sight cannot be confirmed sterile, so the tray and supplies are kept above the waist and always in view. Reaching across the field, or holding a nonsterile solution bottle over its center, passes nonsterile items over the field, and turning your back on the field means it must be treated as contaminated.

   Ref QB-QZKEAYSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: sterile field guidelines (principles of surgical asepsis)Report a problem with this question

4. 4. A medical assistant must pour sterile saline into a sterile basin on the sterile field. Which technique is correct?

   • A.Rest the bottle's lip on the basin rim to prevent splashing
   • B.Place the cap face down on the sterile drape while pouring
   • C.Hold the bottle about 1 inch above the basin to aim well
   • D.Discard a little first, then pour from about 6 inches up✓ Answer

   Pouring off a small amount first (lipping) rinses the bottle opening. Pouring from about 6 inches up keeps the nonsterile bottle from touching the sterile basin and limits splashing that could soak the drape. The bottle must never touch the basin, and the inside of the cap must not touch any surface, especially the sterile field.

   Ref QB-5HQKCVSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: sterile technique (pouring sterile solutions)Report a problem with this question

5. 5. A patient arrives short of breath and wheezing. Which position will make breathing easiest during the exam?

   • A.Supine, lying flat on the back with legs straight
   • B.Sims', lying on the left side with right knee bent
   • C.High Fowler's, sitting upright near 90 degrees✓ Answer
   • D.Trendelenburg, lying with head lower than the feet

   Sitting upright in high Fowler's position lets the diaphragm drop and the lungs expand fully, which eases respiratory distress. Lying flat or head-down lets the abdominal organs press up against the diaphragm, which makes shortness of breath worse.

   Ref QB-MZHESUSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: positioning and draping (Fowler's positions)Report a problem with this question

6. 6. The provider will perform a sigmoidoscopy in the office. Which position should the medical assistant help the patient assume?

   • A.Semi-Fowler's, sitting with head raised 30-45 degrees
   • B.Lithotomy, lying supine with feet placed in stirrups
   • C.Dorsal recumbent, supine with knees bent and feet flat
   • D.Knee-chest, kneeling with chest and head on the table✓ Answer

   The knee-chest position raises the hips so the abdominal organs fall forward, which straightens the rectum and sigmoid colon for proctologic exams such as sigmoidoscopy. Lithotomy and dorsal recumbent are used for pelvic and perineal exams. The position is tiring, so drape to expose only the anal area and keep the patient in it only as long as needed.

   Ref QB-6H3XHWSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: positioning and draping (knee-chest position)Report a problem with this question

7. 7. The provider asks the medical assistant to hand over the ophthalmoscope. Which structures is the provider about to examine?

   • A.The ear canal and the tympanic membrane
   • B.The nasal passages and the nasal septum
   • C.The fluid pressure inside the eyeball
   • D.The retina and optic disc inside the eye✓ Answer

   An ophthalmoscope combines a light with lenses so the provider can see the inside of the eye: the retina, optic disc, and retinal blood vessels. The otoscope is for the ear canal and eardrum, a tonometer measures pressure inside the eye, and a nasal speculum opens the nostrils.

   Ref QB-NZVRXVSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: equipment and instruments for general and specialty examsReport a problem with this question

8. 8. An adult's order calls for 2.5 mL of a medication given IM as a single injection. Which site should the medical assistant choose?

   • A.Dorsogluteal site in the upper outer buttock
   • B.Ventrogluteal site on the side of the hip✓ Answer
   • C.Abdomen, 2 inches away from the navel
   • D.Deltoid of the nondominant upper arm

   The adult deltoid holds only about 1 mL. The ventrogluteal site is a large, deep muscle away from major nerves and blood vessels, so it takes larger volumes. It is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, which risks injury to the sciatic nerve. The abdomen is a subcutaneous site, not an IM site.

   Ref QB-3HZWZSSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: injection sites (IM site selection and volume)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. A medication is supplied in a single-dose glass ampule. How should the medical assistant prepare the injection?

   • A.Inject air equal to the dose into the ampule, then draw
   • B.Use a filter needle to draw, then switch needles to inject✓ Answer
   • C.Draw with the injection needle and give without changing
   • D.Break the neck toward yourself, then draw with any needle

   Snapping an ampule open can drop tiny glass fragments into the medication. A filter needle traps those fragments, and it is then replaced with a regular needle so no glass is injected. An ampule is open once broken, so it needs no air (air goes into vials). The neck is snapped away from the body, with gauze protecting the fingers.

   Ref QB-JZTRESSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: injection supplies (drawing medication from an ampule)Report a problem with this question

10. 10. A medical assistant reconstitutes a powdered medication in a multi-dose vial and will store the remaining medication. What must she write on the vial?

    • A.Nothing extra; the printed expiration date still applies
    • B.Patient's name, dose given, and the injection site
    • C.Date and time mixed, final concentration, and initials✓ Answer
    • D.Only the date opened; the strength is on the label

    Once mixed, a medication usually stays stable for less time than the printed expiration date, and its concentration depends on how much diluent was added. Writing the date and time mixed, the final concentration, and initials lets the next person calculate the dose correctly and discard the vial on time. Information about one patient does not belong on a shared multi-dose vial.

    Ref QB-GRQBXASource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: medication storage, labeling and expiration (reconstitution)Report a problem with this question

11. 11. A provider orders a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually for a patient. How should the medical assistant instruct the patient to take it?

    • A.Place it between cheek and gum and chew to speed it up
    • B.On top of the tongue, then rinse it down with water
    • C.Swallow it whole with a full glass of water right away
    • D.Under the tongue, let it dissolve, and do not swallow it✓ Answer

    A sublingual drug is absorbed through the dense blood vessels under the tongue straight into the bloodstream, skipping first-pass metabolism in the liver. Swallowing or chewing sends the drug through the digestive tract and liver, which weakens its effect. Buccal is a different route (between the cheek and gum), and buccal tablets are not chewed either.

    Ref QB-Z8WGHBSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: nonparenteral medication routes (sublingual)Report a problem with this question

12. 12. The provider orders ophthalmic drops for a patient's left eye. Where should the medical assistant instill the drops?

    • A.Into the inner corner, resting the tip lightly on the lid
    • B.Into the lower conjunctival sac, tip not touching the eye✓ Answer
    • C.Onto the upper eyelid while the patient looks downward
    • D.Directly onto the cornea while the patient looks straight

    The medical assistant gently pulls the lower lid down to form a pocket and has the patient look up, then places the drops in the lower conjunctival sac. This avoids the sensitive cornea, which triggers blinking and loss of the drug. Keeping the dropper tip off the eye and lid prevents contaminating the bottle.

    Ref QB-HR3P4CSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: eye and ear medication techniques (ophthalmic instillation)Report a problem with this question

13. 13. A medical assistant is instilling ear drops for a 2-year-old child. How should she straighten the ear canal?

    • A.Pull the pinna gently down and back✓ Answer
    • B.Pull the pinna gently up and forward
    • C.Pull the pinna gently straight out
    • D.Pull the pinna gently up and back

    In children younger than about 3, the ear canal is short and angles upward, so pulling the pinna down and back straightens it and lets the drops reach the canal. Pulling up and back is the technique for adults and older children, whose canals curve differently.

    Ref QB-299UPCSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: eye and ear medication techniques (pediatric otic instillation)Report a problem with this question

14. 14. After giving a vaccine, a medical assistant records the date, the vaccine, dose, route, site, and her name and title. Which other details does federal law require in the record?

    • A.The vaccine lot number and the VIS edition date✓ Answer
    • B.The patient's weight and temperature at the visit
    • C.The time the vial was taken out of the refrigerator
    • D.The patient's insurance ID and the visit billing code

    For covered vaccines, the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act requires the record to include the manufacturer and lot number, the administrator's name and title, the office address, and the edition date of the VIS and the date it was given. The lot number lets the practice trace recalls and link any adverse event reported to VAERS to a specific batch.

    Ref QB-ERZNK8Source: National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act recordkeeping requirements (42 U.S.C. 300aa-25); NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B: immunization documentationReport a problem with this question

15. 15. The provider orders 75 mg of a medication IM. The vial is labeled 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters should the medical assistant draw up?

    • A.1.5 mL✓ Answer
    • B.0.67 mL
    • C.1.25 mL
    • D.2.5 mL

    Use desired over have times quantity: 75 mg divided by 50 mg, times 1 mL, equals 1.5 mL. The answer 0.67 mL comes from inverting the fraction (50/75), and the other values come from setting up the ratio or the arithmetic incorrectly.

    Ref QB-X87U69Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: dosage calculations for injectable medications (desired/have x quantity)Report a problem with this question

16. 16. A patient received a Mantoux tuberculin skin test on Monday morning. When and how should the result be read?

    • A.At 48-72 hours, measuring induration in millimeters✓ Answer
    • B.At 24 hours, measuring the diameter of redness
    • C.At 48-72 hours, measuring the diameter of redness
    • D.After 7 days, measuring redness and swelling together

    The tuberculin reaction is a delayed-type hypersensitivity that peaks 48 to 72 hours after placement. Only induration counts: the firm, raised area is felt by touch and measured in millimeters across the forearm. Redness alone is not measured. A test not read within 72 hours usually has to be repeated.

    Ref QB-FRCZR9Source: CDC tuberculin skin testing guidance (Mantoux reading and interpretation); NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B: injection logs (TB medications)Report a problem with this question

17. 17. While removing an interrupted suture, the medical assistant has lifted the knot with thumb forceps. What should she do next?

    • A.Cut both sides of the knot level with the skin and lift it straight up
    • B.Cut above the knot away from the skin and pull away from the incision
    • C.Cut beneath the knot close to the skin and pull toward the incision✓ Answer
    • D.Cut through the knot itself and pull each loose end out separately

    Cutting on the side closest to the skin means the part of the suture that sat outside on the skin surface is never dragged through the tissue, which limits the risk of infection. Pulling toward the incision line keeps the healing wound edges from being pulled apart. Cutting through the knot leaves nothing to grasp, and pulling away from the incision can open the wound.

    Ref QB-Y8J6CASource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: staple and suture removal techniqueReport a problem with this question

18. 18. A patient returns to have sutures removed from a forearm laceration. After hand hygiene and gloving, the medical assistant cleanses the site and sees that the wound edges are separated in one area. What should she do?

    • A.Stop and notify the provider before removing any sutures✓ Answer
    • B.Remove every other suture and apply adhesive closure strips
    • C.Remove the sutures near the gap first to relieve the tension
    • D.Remove all sutures, then apply an antibiotic ointment dressing

    The wound must be inspected for approximation and signs of infection before anything is removed. A wound that is not well approximated may not be ready for removal, and deciding whether to remove the sutures, leave them, or reclose the wound is the provider's call. Removing any sutures first could let the wound open further.

    Ref QB-MR5PMFSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: staple and suture removal (inspect wound before removal)Report a problem with this question

19. 19. Before irrigating an adult's ear to remove impacted cerumen, the medical assistant reviews the setup. Which practice is correct?

    • A.Warm the solution to body temperature and seal the canal with the tip
    • B.Use room-temperature solution and pull the pinna down and back
    • C.Warm the solution to body temperature and aim it at the canal roof✓ Answer
    • D.Chill the solution slightly and aim it directly at the eardrum

    Fluid that is colder or hotter than the body stimulates the inner ear's balance system and causes vertigo and nausea, so the solution is warmed to about 98.6°F (37°C). Aiming at the superior wall of the canal lets the fluid flow behind the cerumen without striking the eardrum directly. The canal must never be sealed, because the return flow has to drain out and trapped pressure can rupture the tympanic membrane. In adults the pinna is pulled up and back; down and back is for young children.

    Ref QB-59BU7GSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: ear irrigation technique and safetyReport a problem with this question

20. 20. A patient has a foreign substance in the left eye only, and the provider orders irrigation with sterile saline. How should the medical assistant position the patient and irrigate?

    • A.Tilt the head toward the left and flow from outer to inner canthus
    • B.Keep the head upright and flow directly onto the center of the cornea
    • C.Tilt the head toward the left and flow from inner to outer canthus✓ Answer
    • D.Tilt the head toward the right and flow from inner to outer canthus

    Tilting the head toward the affected eye and flowing from the inner canthus outward carries the solution and contaminant away from the nose and the unaffected eye. Flowing from outer to inner, or tilting toward the healthy side, can wash the contaminant across into the other eye or into the nasolacrimal duct. A stream aimed directly at the cornea can injure it.

    Ref QB-Q8GJG8Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: eye irrigation techniqueReport a problem with this question

21. 21. A staff member spills hot coffee on her forearm. The skin is red and painful and has a few small blisters. What is the appropriate first aid?

    • A.Coat the area with butter or petroleum jelly, then wrap it tightly with gauze
    • B.Cool it under cool running water, then cover loosely with a dry sterile dressing✓ Answer
    • C.Apply ice directly to the skin, then open the blisters to let them drain
    • D.Apply ice wrapped in a towel, then pop the blisters and apply ointment

    Blisters mean this is a second-degree (partial-thickness) burn. Cool running water stops the burning process without the extra tissue damage that ice causes. Blisters are left intact because they protect the wound from infection, and greasy substances trap heat. A loose, dry sterile dressing protects the area without pressing on it.

    Ref QB-7RADW7Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: first aid for burns (classification by depth)Report a problem with this question

22. 22. A patient trips in the parking lot and has an obviously deformed, painful lower leg. While waiting for EMS, what should the medical assistant do?

    • A.Apply heat to the deformity and massage the area to reduce the spasm
    • B.Help the patient stand to check whether the injured leg can bear weight
    • C.Splint the leg as found, including the joints above and below the injury✓ Answer
    • D.Gently pull the leg back into alignment before applying a rigid splint

    A suspected fracture is immobilized in the position found, and the splint includes the joints above and below so the broken ends cannot move. Trying to realign the bone, bearing weight, or massaging the area can tear vessels and nerves or turn a closed fracture into an open one. Realignment is done by the provider or EMS, not the MA.

    Ref QB-R8UVN9Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: first aid for common injuries (fractures)Report a problem with this question

23. 23. A patient with type 1 diabetes who skipped lunch becomes shaky, sweaty, pale, and confused, but is awake and able to swallow. After alerting the provider, what should the medical assistant do per office protocol?

    • A.Withhold all food and fluids until a provider-ordered insulin dose is given
    • B.Give a high-protein snack with water and recheck glucose in one hour
    • C.Give a sugar-free drink and have the patient rest until the symptoms pass
    • D.Give 15 g of fast-acting sugar, such as juice, and recheck in 15 minutes✓ Answer

    A sudden onset of shakiness, sweating, pale skin, and confusion after a missed meal points to hypoglycemia. A conscious patient who can swallow gets about 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate, with a recheck in 15 minutes (the 15-15 rule). Insulin would lower the glucose further, and protein or sugar-free drinks do not raise it quickly enough. When unsure whether a diabetic patient is hypo- or hyperglycemic, give sugar.

    Ref QB-8RNQ39Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: diabetic emergencies (hypoglycemia, 15-15 rule)Report a problem with this question

24. 24. A landscaper is brought into the clinic on a hot afternoon. His skin is hot, red, and dry, he is confused, and his temperature is 105°F (40.6°C). What should the medical assistant recognize and do?

    • A.Heat cramps; stretch the muscles and give water
    • B.Heat stroke; call 911 and begin rapid cooling✓ Answer
    • C.Heat exhaustion; give fluids and let him rest
    • D.Hyperglycemia; check his blood glucose first

    Hot, red, dry skin with altered mental status and a temperature above 104°F means heat stroke: the body's cooling system has failed, and this is a life-threatening emergency. EMS is activated and rapid cooling begins right away. Heat exhaustion causes cool, moist, pale skin with heavy sweating and a clear mind; heat cramps cause muscle spasms only.

    Ref QB-N8SV56Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: urgent and emergency signs (heat stroke vs heat exhaustion)Report a problem with this question

25. 25. In the waiting room, an adult grabs her throat after a bite of food, but she is coughing forcefully and can speak. What should the medical assistant do?

    • A.Give five firm back blows between the shoulder blades
    • B.Sweep a finger through her mouth to find the object
    • C.Stay with her and encourage her to keep coughing✓ Answer
    • D.Give abdominal thrusts until the object comes out

    A forceful cough and the ability to speak show a partial obstruction with good air exchange, and coughing is the most effective way to clear it. Abdominal thrusts are started only when the person cannot cough, speak, or breathe. A blind finger sweep can push the object deeper. The MA stays with her and is ready to act if the obstruction becomes complete.

    Ref QB-5RKQJ5Source: AHA BLS — adult foreign-body airway obstruction (mild vs severe)Report a problem with this question

26. 26. A medical assistant is performing single-rescuer CPR on an adult in cardiac arrest. Which technique is correct?

    • A.Rate 100-120/min, depth about 1 inch, partial recoil, 30:2
    • B.Rate 100-120/min, depth at least 2 inches, full recoil, 30:2✓ Answer
    • C.Rate 100-120/min, depth at least 2 inches, full recoil, 15:2
    • D.Rate 60-80/min, depth at least 2 inches, full recoil, 30:2

    Adult compressions are given at 100-120 per minute and at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep, and the chest must recoil fully so the heart can refill between compressions. Adults get 30 compressions to 2 breaths whether there are one or two rescuers. The 15:2 ratio applies only to two-rescuer CPR on a child or infant. Slow, shallow compressions do not move enough blood.

    Ref QB-P858B7Source: AHA BLS — adult high-quality CPR (rate, depth, recoil, compression-to-ventilation ratio)Report a problem with this question

27. 27. During CPR on an unresponsive adult, a coworker arrives with the AED. What should be done first with the device?

    • A.Turn the AED on and follow its voice prompts✓ Answer
    • B.Recheck the carotid pulse for a full minute
    • C.Attach the pads and press the shock button
    • D.Finish five more cycles of CPR, then use it

    The AED is used as soon as it is available, and the first step is to power it on so its prompts can guide pad placement and rhythm analysis. The device, not the rescuer, decides whether a shock is advised, so pressing shock before analysis is wrong. Delaying for more CPR cycles or a long pulse check lowers survival; pulse checks take no more than 10 seconds.

    Ref QB-6RX2R6Source: AHA BLS — AED use (power on first, follow prompts, minimize delay)Report a problem with this question

28. 28. The provider asks the medical assistant to prepare an electronic prescription for a Schedule IV medication for the provider to review and sign. Compared with a noncontrolled prescription, which additional element must it carry?

    • A.The medical assistant's CCMA number
    • B.The patient's Social Security number
    • C.The pharmacist's state license number
    • D.The prescriber's DEA registration number✓ Answer

    Under federal DEA rules, a controlled-substance prescription must carry the prescriber's DEA registration number and the patient's full address, in addition to the usual elements (patient name, date, drug, strength, form, quantity, directions, refills, and the prescriber's name and signature). Electronic prescribing of controlled substances also requires the prescriber's two-factor authentication. The MA may prepare the prescription, but only the provider can authorize and sign it.

    Ref QB-K838T3Source: DEA regulations 21 CFR 1306.05 — required content of controlled-substance prescriptionsReport a problem with this question

29. 29. A provider orders a CPAP machine after a sleep study confirms obstructive sleep apnea. The patient's health plan requires prior authorization for this equipment. When should the medical assistant obtain it?

    • A.After the patient has used the device for 30 days
    • B.Before the supplier delivers the device to the patient✓ Answer
    • C.At the patient's next follow-up visit with the provider
    • D.When the supplier's first claim comes back denied

    Prior authorization is the payer's approval of medical necessity, and it must be obtained before the item or service is provided; otherwise the claim can be denied and the patient left with the bill. The request includes the provider's order, the diagnosis, and supporting documentation such as the sleep study. The MA records the authorization number, the approved dates, and every communication.

    Ref QB-3RV283Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: ordering DME and prior authorizationReport a problem with this question

30. 30. As directed by the provider, a credentialed medical assistant enters a medication order through CPOE, and the system displays a drug-allergy alert for this patient. What should the medical assistant do?

    • A.Hold the order and notify the provider of the alert✓ Answer
    • B.Override the alert, since the provider gave the order
    • C.Switch to a similar drug that does not trigger the alert
    • D.Delete the allergy from the chart so the order can go through

    CPOE's clinical decision support alerts exist to catch errors such as an allergy conflict before the drug reaches the patient. The MA enters orders only as directed and cannot make clinical decisions, so overriding the alert or choosing another drug is outside her scope. Deleting a documented allergy falsifies the record. The provider must review the alert and decide.

    Ref QB-M6GDY4Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: entering orders via CPOE (clinical decision support alerts)Report a problem with this question

31. 31. A medical assistant is screening patients who requested same-day telehealth video visits. Which patient should instead be told to call 911?

    • A.A man with a home blood pressure log to review for a refill
    • B.A teen with an itchy rash on both forearms since yesterday
    • C.A woman with burning urination for two days and no fever
    • D.A man with crushing chest pressure spreading to his jaw✓ Answer

    Crushing chest pressure radiating to the jaw is a warning sign of a heart attack, which needs emergency treatment that a virtual visit cannot provide, so the patient is directed to 911. Minor urinary symptoms, a mild rash, and reviewing home blood pressure readings for a medication refill are all typical telehealth uses.

    Ref QB-5PNJJ5Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 3B General Patient Care: conditions appropriate for telehealthReport a problem with this question

Practice questions built from the domains and task statements in the National Healthcareer Association's published CCMA test plan. This site is not affiliated with or endorsed by NHA, and these are not real exam questions. Eligibility rules, fees, scoring and the exam format are set by NHA and can change, so confirm them on NHA's site before you register. What a medical assistant may do also depends on state law and employer policy. About the CCMA (NHA) →