26 Foundational Knowledge & Anatomy Practice Questions & Answers

Every Foundational Knowledge & Anatomy practice question from the CCMA Practice Test (NHA Clinical Medical Assistant), with the correct answer and a short explanation.

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1. A patient calls and asks the medical assistant what her elevated cholesterol result means for her health. Working under provider supervision per state law and employer policy, what is the best response?
- A.Read her the reference range and say it is mild
- B.Tell her the provider will review it and contact her✓ Answer
- C.Advise her to start a low-fat diet right away
- D.Explain that the result means she needs a statin
Interpreting results, recommending treatment and giving advice that requires clinical judgment belong to the licensed provider; the medical assistant routes the question to the provider and relays only what the provider directs. Calling the result mild, naming a drug or prescribing a diet are all interpretation or treatment decisions outside MA scope.
Ref QB-TWZBBVSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Foundational Knowledge: medical assistant roles, responsibilities and scope of practiceReport a problem with this question
2. Which statement correctly distinguishes licensure from certification for health care workers?
- A.Licensure is state-granted and required; certification is voluntary✓ Answer
- B.Certification is state-granted and required; licensure is voluntary
- C.Both are voluntary credentials that private agencies issue
- D.Both are granted by the state and both are required to practice
A license is issued by a state government and is legally mandatory to practice a licensed profession such as medicine or nursing. Certification is a voluntary credential awarded by a private, non-governmental body (such as NHA for the CCMA) showing the person met a competency standard.
Ref QB-CEJU3XSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Foundational Knowledge: licensing versus certificationReport a problem with this question
3. A clinic joins a model in which a group of providers shares accountability for the quality and total cost of care for a defined patient population and can share in any savings. Which model is this?
- A.Fee-for-service arrangement
- B.Collaborative care program
- C.Accountable care organization✓ Answer
- D.Patient-centered medical home
An accountable care organization (ACO) is a value-based model: its providers are jointly responsible for a population's quality and cost and share in savings when they meet targets. A PCMH is a team-based primary care structure, not a shared-savings payment arrangement, and fee-for-service pays per service, which rewards volume rather than outcomes.
Ref QB-UWCPGWSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Foundational Knowledge: health care delivery models and payment models (fee for service vs value-based)Report a problem with this question
4. A patient's family asks how hospice differs from other palliative care. Which statement is accurate?
- A.Hospice is for a terminal prognosis and stops curative treatment✓ Answer
- B.Hospice is limited to patients in the last 72 hours of life
- C.Hospice is given only inside a hospital's inpatient unit
- D.Hospice continues curative treatment along with comfort care
Hospice is comfort-focused care for patients with a terminal prognosis (usually 6 months or less) who have chosen to stop curative treatment; it is most often delivered at home. Palliative care, by contrast, relieves symptoms at any stage of a serious illness and can be given alongside curative treatment.
Ref QB-9EGUJTSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Foundational Knowledge: types of health care organizations and delivery models (hospice)Report a problem with this question
5. The provider dictates that the patient's liver is enlarged. Which term should appear in the medical record?
- A.Hepatomegaly✓ Answer
- B.Hepatalgia
- C.Hepatectomy
- D.Hepatotomy
The term is built from the combining form hepat/o (liver) plus the suffix -megaly (enlargement). The suffix -ectomy means excision, -otomy means incision, and -algia means pain, so the other terms describe surgical removal, a surgical cut or liver pain.
Ref QB-RWAPYSSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Medical Terminology: word building (roots, prefixes, suffixes)Report a problem with this question
6. A handwritten order reads "insulin glargine 10 U at bedtime." Why does The Joint Commission prohibit the abbreviation "U"?
- A.It can be misread as a 0 or 4, causing an overdose✓ Answer
- B.It can be misread as "micrograms" on the label
- C.It must always be written in the plural as "Us"
- D.It is not a recognized unit of measure for insulin
A handwritten "U" can be read as a zero or a four, so "10 U" can become 100 or 104, which is a dangerous overdose of a high-alert drug. The Joint Commission "Do Not Use" list requires writing the word "unit" in full. Units are the correct measure for insulin; the issue is only the abbreviation.
Ref QB-AEU6RUSource: The Joint Commission Official "Do Not Use" List — U/u (write "unit")Report a problem with this question
7. A patient tells the medical assistant, "I passed out in the shower yesterday and woke up on the floor." Which medical term should be used to document this?
- A.Seizure
- B.Syncope✓ Answer
- C.Vertigo
- D.Emesis
Syncope is the medical term for fainting, a brief loss of consciousness from reduced blood flow to the brain. Vertigo is a spinning sensation without loss of consciousness, a seizure is abnormal electrical brain activity, and emesis means vomiting.
Ref QB-SWNZ5USource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Medical Terminology: lay versus medical termsReport a problem with this question
8. A patient starts furosemide, a loop diuretic, for edema. Which electrolyte imbalance is the main concern the provider will monitor for?
- A.Hypernatremia
- B.Hypokalemia✓ Answer
- C.Hypercalcemia
- D.Hyperkalemia
Loop diuretics such as furosemide increase urinary loss of sodium and water and, with them, potassium, so low potassium (hypokalemia) is the key risk. Hyperkalemia is instead a concern with potassium-sparing diuretics and ACE inhibitors, and loop diuretics tend to lower, not raise, calcium.
Ref QB-7ES68RSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Basic Pharmacology: drug classifications (diuretics) and commonly prescribed medicationsReport a problem with this question
9. Under the federal Controlled Substances Act, which of these medications is classified as Schedule IV?
- A.Fentanyl
- B.Ketamine
- C.Diazepam✓ Answer
- D.Oxycodone
Benzodiazepines such as diazepam have a lower abuse potential than higher schedules and are placed in Schedule IV. Oxycodone and fentanyl are Schedule II opioids with high abuse potential, and ketamine is Schedule III.
Ref QB-PWKZMQSource: Controlled Substances Act, 21 CFR 1308 — schedules of controlled substancesReport a problem with this question
10. A patient taking an antihistamine reports mild drowsiness, which the package insert lists as expected. Another patient on the same drug develops hives and throat swelling. How should these reactions be classified?
- A.Drowsiness is an adverse effect; hives with swelling is a side effect
- B.Both reactions are side effects because the insert lists both
- C.Both reactions are contraindications that require a new drug
- D.Drowsiness is a side effect; hives with swelling is an adverse effect✓ Answer
A side effect is an expected, usually mild secondary effect of a drug, like antihistamine drowsiness. An adverse effect is harmful and unintended, such as an allergic reaction with hives and airway swelling, and it needs immediate reporting to the provider. A contraindication is a reason not to give a drug, not a reaction to it.
Ref QB-J6YXH4Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Basic Pharmacology: side effects versus adverse effectsReport a problem with this question
11. A provider is considering an NSAID for a patient's knee pain. Which item in the patient's history is a contraindication to this drug class?
- A.Acute sprain of the ankle
- B.Controlled hypothyroidism
- C.Osteoarthritis of the knee
- D.Active peptic ulcer disease✓ Answer
NSAIDs reduce protective prostaglandins in the stomach lining and raise the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, so an active peptic ulcer is a reason not to use them (a contraindication). Osteoarthritis pain and an acute sprain are indications, reasons to use the drug, and stable hypothyroidism does not rule out an NSAID.
Ref QB-3P5555Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Basic Pharmacology: indications versus contraindicationsReport a problem with this question
12. The provider orders 15 mL of an oral liquid medication. The patient will measure each dose at home with a standard measuring teaspoon. How many teaspoons equal one dose?
- A.1 teaspoon
- B.1.5 teaspoons
- C.5 teaspoons
- D.3 teaspoons✓ Answer
One teaspoon equals 5 mL, so 15 mL divided by 5 mL per teaspoon is 3 teaspoons. The 1-teaspoon answer confuses a teaspoon with a tablespoon (15 mL), which is a common source of threefold dosing errors.
Ref QB-K6BAQ5Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Basic Pharmacology: metric and household measurement conversions (1 tsp = 5 mL)Report a problem with this question
13. A patient has advanced cirrhosis of the liver. Which pharmacokinetic process is most likely to be impaired, raising the risk that drugs build up in the body?
- A.Drug metabolism✓ Answer
- B.Drug excretion
- C.Drug absorption
- D.Drug distribution
The liver is the main site of drug metabolism (biotransformation), so liver disease slows the breakdown of many drugs and lets them accumulate. Excretion happens mainly through the kidneys, so it is the process most affected by kidney disease, not cirrhosis.
Ref QB-4PGFA6Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Basic Pharmacology: pharmacokinetics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion)Report a problem with this question
14. While preparing a medication, the medical assistant notices the order reads hydroxyzine but the stock bin label reads hydralazine. What is the best action?
- A.Stop and verify the drug against the order before giving it✓ Answer
- B.Give it, since both are antihistamines with similar doses
- C.Give it, since both names refer to the same active drug
- D.Substitute it and note the change in the chart afterward
Hydroxyzine (an antihistamine) and hydralazine (an antihypertensive) are a known look-alike/sound-alike pair with very different actions. The medication label must match the order exactly as part of the rights of administration; any mismatch means stopping and getting the correct drug or clarifying with the provider, never substituting.
Ref QB-G69A72Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Basic Pharmacology: look-alike/sound-alike medications and rights of medication administrationReport a problem with this question
15. A patient newly diagnosed with celiac disease asks which of these foods is safe to eat. Which choice is appropriate?
- A.Rye crisp crackers
- B.Whole-wheat toast
- C.Barley vegetable soup
- D.Plain steamed rice✓ Answer
Celiac disease is an immune reaction to gluten, the protein in wheat, barley and rye, so treatment is a strict gluten-free diet. Rice is naturally gluten-free, while the soup, toast and crackers each contain one of the three gluten grains.
Ref QB-ZNEFS2Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Nutrition: diets for celiac disease (gluten-free)Report a problem with this question
16. A patient says he takes very large daily doses of several vitamin supplements. Which group of vitamins is most likely to be stored in body fat and reach toxic levels?
- A.Vitamins A, D, E and K✓ Answer
- B.Vitamins C, B12 and folate
- C.Vitamins B1, B2, B6 and C
- D.Vitamins A, C, E and B12
Vitamins A, D, E and K are fat-soluble: they are stored in the liver and fatty tissue, so excess amounts can accumulate to toxic levels. The B-complex vitamins (including B12 and folate) and vitamin C are water-soluble, and excess amounts are mostly excreted in the urine.
Ref QB-H6MMC3Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Nutrition: vitamins and supplements (fat-soluble vs water-soluble)Report a problem with this question
17. After the provider tells a patient his blood pressure is poorly controlled, he says nothing to the provider but then shouts at the receptionist about a parking fee. Which defense mechanism is he most likely using?
- A.Regression
- B.Displacement✓ Answer
- C.Projection
- D.Sublimation
Displacement redirects feelings from the real source (the diagnosis or the provider) onto a safer, less threatening target (the receptionist). Projection attributes one's own feelings to someone else, regression is a return to childlike behavior, and sublimation channels impulses into socially acceptable activities.
Ref QB-2PSSX3Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Psychology: defense mechanismsReport a problem with this question
18. A patient with terminal cancer tells the medical assistant, "If I can just live long enough to see my daughter's wedding, I'll accept whatever comes after." Which Kubler-Ross stage of grief does this statement reflect?
- A.Denial
- B.Bargaining✓ Answer
- C.Acceptance
- D.Depression
Bargaining is the stage in which a person tries to negotiate for more time or a delay, often in an "if I can just..." form. The promise to accept things later shows the patient has not yet reached acceptance, and he is not refusing to believe the diagnosis (denial). The stages are not strictly linear.
Ref QB-P6DA89Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 1 Psychology: end of life and stages of grief (Kubler-Ross)Report a problem with this question
19. A patient handout explains that muscle cells contain large numbers of the organelle that produces most of the cell's energy in the form of ATP. Which organelle is this?
- A.Lysosome
- B.Ribosome
- C.Mitochondrion✓ Answer
- D.Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria carry out cellular respiration and make most of the cell's ATP, which is why energy-hungry muscle cells have so many. Ribosomes make proteins, lysosomes hold digestive enzymes, and the Golgi apparatus packages and ships proteins.
Ref QB-7PJFT9Source: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 2 Anatomy and Physiology: cell structure (mitochondria)Report a problem with this question
20. After a meal, a patient's blood glucose rises, the pancreas releases insulin, and glucose falls back toward its normal range. What does this sequence best illustrate?
- A.Sympathetic fight-or-flight response
- B.Positive feedback amplifying the change
- C.Glucagon release raising blood glucose
- D.Negative feedback restoring homeostasis✓ Answer
In negative feedback, the response reverses the original change: rising glucose triggers insulin, which lowers glucose back to the set point. Positive feedback amplifies a change (as in labor contractions), and glucagon does the opposite of insulin by raising blood glucose.
Ref QB-UCYE4FSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 2 Anatomy and Physiology: interactions between body systems and homeostasis (negative feedback)Report a problem with this question
21. Which of these findings recorded at a visit is a sign rather than a symptom?
- A.Nausea since early this morning
- B.Aching pain in the lower back
- C.Red rash visible on the forearm✓ Answer
- D.Dizziness when standing up
A sign is objective: it can be seen, measured or detected by someone other than the patient, like a visible rash. Symptoms are subjective sensations only the patient can report, such as nausea, pain and dizziness.
Ref QB-BVS9HESource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 2 Pathophysiology: signs, symptoms and etiology of common diseasesReport a problem with this question
22. A county health report counts the number of new type 2 diabetes diagnoses made among residents during one calendar year. Which epidemiologic measure does this describe?
- A.Mortality
- B.Incidence✓ Answer
- C.Comorbidity
- D.Prevalence
Incidence counts new cases that arise during a specified period. Prevalence counts all existing cases, old and new, at a point in time; mortality counts deaths, and comorbidity means conditions that coexist in the same patient.
Ref QB-VCBS9GSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 2 Pathophysiology: incidence, prevalence, risk factors and comorbiditiesReport a problem with this question
23. A new respiratory virus spreads across several continents with sustained person-to-person transmission in many countries. Which term best describes this situation?
- A.Sporadic
- B.Epidemic
- C.Pandemic✓ Answer
- D.Endemic
A pandemic is an epidemic that has spread worldwide across countries and continents, as COVID-19 did. An epidemic is a rise in cases above the expected level within a region, endemic means a constant baseline presence in an area, and sporadic means occasional, scattered cases.
Ref QB-CV5MPFSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 2 Pathophysiology: epidemics and pandemicsReport a problem with this question
24. Which group of findings is most consistent with hypothyroidism?
- A.Wheezing, chest tightness and a cough at night
- B.Fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation✓ Answer
- C.Excessive thirst, frequent urination, constant hunger
- D.Weight loss, heat intolerance, tremor, rapid pulse
Low thyroid hormone (T3/T4) slows the metabolic rate, which causes fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance and constipation. Weight loss, heat intolerance and a rapid pulse point to hyperthyroidism; thirst, urination and hunger (polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia) suggest diabetes; and wheezing with chest tightness suggests asthma.
Ref QB-SC9SRCSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 2 Pathophysiology: signs and symptoms of common diseases (endocrine disorders)Report a problem with this question
25. A 45-year-old patient has symmetric swelling of the small joints of both hands and morning stiffness that lasts more than an hour. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?
- A.Degenerative joint disease
- B.Acute gouty arthritis
- C.Rheumatoid arthritis✓ Answer
- D.Bacterial septic arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune inflammation of the joint lining that typically affects small joints symmetrically, with prolonged morning stiffness. Degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis) is wear-and-tear with brief stiffness that eases within about 30 minutes, while gout and septic arthritis usually strike a single joint suddenly.
Ref QB-9V3M6CSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 2 Pathophysiology: signs, symptoms and etiology of common musculoskeletal conditionsReport a problem with this question
26. A patient's treatment plan for a breast mass lists several procedures. Which one is a diagnostic measure rather than a treatment modality?
- A.External beam radiation therapy
- B.Intravenous chemotherapy infusion
- C.Lumpectomy to remove a tumor
- D.Core needle biopsy of the lump✓ Answer
A biopsy removes a tissue sample for microscopic examination to establish a diagnosis, such as whether a mass is cancerous. Chemotherapy infusion, radiation therapy and surgical removal of the tumor are treatment modalities used after the diagnosis is made.
Ref QB-TCM4XDSource: NHA CCMA Test Plan — Domain 2 Pathophysiology: diagnostic measures (biopsies) and treatment modalities (infusion, chemotherapy, surgery)Report a problem with this question

1. A patient calls and asks the medical assistant what her elevated cholesterol result means for her health. Working under provider supervision per state law and employer policy, what is the best response?

2. Which statement correctly distinguishes licensure from certification for health care workers?

3. A clinic joins a model in which a group of providers shares accountability for the quality and total cost of care for a defined patient population and can share in any savings. Which model is this?

4. A patient's family asks how hospice differs from other palliative care. Which statement is accurate?

5. The provider dictates that the patient's liver is enlarged. Which term should appear in the medical record?

6. A handwritten order reads "insulin glargine 10 U at bedtime." Why does The Joint Commission prohibit the abbreviation "U"?

7. A patient tells the medical assistant, "I passed out in the shower yesterday and woke up on the floor." Which medical term should be used to document this?

8. A patient starts furosemide, a loop diuretic, for edema. Which electrolyte imbalance is the main concern the provider will monitor for?

9. Under the federal Controlled Substances Act, which of these medications is classified as Schedule IV?

10. A patient taking an antihistamine reports mild drowsiness, which the package insert lists as expected. Another patient on the same drug develops hives and throat swelling. How should these reactions be classified?

11. A provider is considering an NSAID for a patient's knee pain. Which item in the patient's history is a contraindication to this drug class?

12. The provider orders 15 mL of an oral liquid medication. The patient will measure each dose at home with a standard measuring teaspoon. How many teaspoons equal one dose?

13. A patient has advanced cirrhosis of the liver. Which pharmacokinetic process is most likely to be impaired, raising the risk that drugs build up in the body?

14. While preparing a medication, the medical assistant notices the order reads hydroxyzine but the stock bin label reads hydralazine. What is the best action?

15. A patient newly diagnosed with celiac disease asks which of these foods is safe to eat. Which choice is appropriate?

16. A patient says he takes very large daily doses of several vitamin supplements. Which group of vitamins is most likely to be stored in body fat and reach toxic levels?

17. After the provider tells a patient his blood pressure is poorly controlled, he says nothing to the provider but then shouts at the receptionist about a parking fee. Which defense mechanism is he most likely using?

18. A patient with terminal cancer tells the medical assistant, "If I can just live long enough to see my daughter's wedding, I'll accept whatever comes after." Which Kubler-Ross stage of grief does this statement reflect?

19. A patient handout explains that muscle cells contain large numbers of the organelle that produces most of the cell's energy in the form of ATP. Which organelle is this?

20. After a meal, a patient's blood glucose rises, the pancreas releases insulin, and glucose falls back toward its normal range. What does this sequence best illustrate?

21. Which of these findings recorded at a visit is a sign rather than a symptom?

22. A county health report counts the number of new type 2 diabetes diagnoses made among residents during one calendar year. Which epidemiologic measure does this describe?

23. A new respiratory virus spreads across several continents with sustained person-to-person transmission in many countries. Which term best describes this situation?

24. Which group of findings is most consistent with hypothyroidism?

25. A 45-year-old patient has symmetric swelling of the small joints of both hands and morning stiffness that lasts more than an hour. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?

26. A patient's treatment plan for a breast mass lists several procedures. Which one is a diagnostic measure rather than a treatment modality?

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