22 Operating Systems Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. A technician is choosing a file system for a workstation's internal drive and wants the volume to return to a consistent state quickly after a sudden power loss. Which file-system feature provides this?

   • A.Disk quotas
   • B.Journaling✓ Answer
   • C.File compression
   • D.Drive letter assignment

   A journaling file system writes pending metadata changes to a log before committing them, so after an unexpected shutdown the OS replays or discards the journal instead of scanning the whole volume. Quotas, compression, and drive letters manage space, size, and naming, but none of them protect structural integrity after a crash.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — OS types and file system features (journaling)Report a problem with this question

2. 2. A technician copies a 12 GB video file to a USB flash drive used on both Windows and macOS. The copy fails even though the drive shows plenty of free space; the drive uses the legacy cross-platform FAT file system. What is the best fix?

   • A.Reformat the drive with the modern flash-oriented cross-platform file system (exFAT)✓ Answer
   • B.Run a full format instead of a quick format using the same file system
   • C.Compress the file and enable disk quotas on the drive
   • D.Reformat the drive with the Windows-native file system (NTFS)

   The legacy FAT32 file system caps any single file at 4 GB regardless of how much free space remains, so a 12 GB file simply cannot be stored on it. exFAT was designed as its successor for flash media, removes that practical file-size limit, and stays fully read-write on both Windows and macOS; NTFS would allow the large file but is not natively writable by macOS.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — file systems and their limitations (FAT32 vs exFAT vs NTFS)Report a problem with this question

3. 3. A Linux desktop user needs to install an application, have its dependencies resolved automatically, and receive future security updates for it. What is the appropriate approach?

   • A.Use the distribution's package manager to install from its repositories✓ Answer
   • B.Download a compressed archive from a website and extract it into the home directory
   • C.Copy the program's files into /etc and mark them read-only
   • D.Mount the installer as a disk image and drag it into the Applications folder

   A Linux package manager installs from signed distribution repositories, automatically pulls in the shared libraries the program depends on, and records the package so later update runs patch it. A manually extracted archive is invisible to dependency and update tracking, /etc is reserved for configuration files, and the mount-and-drag model belongs to macOS.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — Linux client/desktop tools (package management)Report a problem with this question

4. 4. When a technician initializes a new drive, the choice of partition table scheme (MBR or GPT) primarily determines what?

   • A.Whether the volume can enforce per-file permissions
   • B.The maximum addressable volume size, how many partitions are supported, and which firmware type can boot from the disk✓ Answer
   • C.The sustained read speed of the drive
   • D.The cluster size used when the volume is formatted

   The partition table is metadata that describes the disk's layout: the legacy MBR scheme addresses only about 2 TB and allows four primary partitions, while GPT supports far larger volumes, many more partitions, and redundant checksummed headers, and is the scheme UEFI firmware requires to boot. Cluster size comes from formatting, permissions come from the file system, and speed comes from the hardware.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — OS installations and upgrades (partitioning: MBR vs GPT)Report a problem with this question

5. 5. A user's computer is being moved to a newer OS release. The user must keep installed applications, files, and settings, and downtime must be minimal. Which installation type should the technician choose?

   • A.In-place upgrade✓ Answer
   • B.Image deployment from a standard corporate image
   • C.Reset from the factory recovery media
   • D.Clean install

   An in-place upgrade replaces the operating-system files while preserving user data, settings, and installed applications, so nothing has to be reinstalled or reconfigured afterward. A clean install, an image deployment, and a factory reset all overwrite the existing installation and discard applications and settings.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — install types (clean install vs in-place upgrade vs image deployment)Report a problem with this question

6. 6. What is the purpose of a recovery partition on a workstation's drive?

   • A.It stores the paging file so the OS can use virtual memory
   • B.It provides a second file system so the disk can be read by other operating systems
   • C.It holds repair and restore tools plus OS source files so the system can be repaired or reinstalled without external media✓ Answer
   • D.It mirrors the system volume so data survives a drive failure

   A recovery partition is a separate, usually hidden partition containing the recovery environment and an installation image, which lets a technician run startup repair or reinstall the OS locally instead of hunting for install media. It is not a backup: because it sits on the same physical disk, a drive failure destroys it along with everything else.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — install types (recovery partition, repair installation)Report a problem with this question

7. 7. A workstation must boot from a USB installation drive instead of its internal disk. Where is the boot order changed, and how does that relate to the OS bootloader?

   • A.In the OS bootloader, which selects the device; the firmware only supplies power to the hardware
   • B.In the OS network settings, because the boot order is delivered by the DHCP server
   • C.In the firmware setup (BIOS/UEFI), which selects which device receives control; the bootloader on that device then loads the operating system✓ Answer
   • D.In Disk Management, which tells the firmware which partition to read first

   Firmware setup runs before any operating system exists and decides which device the system hands control to; only after that does the bootloader stored on the chosen device load the OS kernel. Disk Management and network settings are utilities inside an already-booted OS and therefore cannot influence which device the firmware tries first.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — boot methods and boot order (firmware setup vs OS bootloader)Report a problem with this question

8. 8. Before performing either a clean install or an in-place upgrade, what is the single most important preparation step?

   • A.Defragment the drive
   • B.Back up user data and preferences, then verify that the backup can actually be restored✓ Answer
   • C.Disable the firewall
   • D.Delete all existing restore points to free up space

   Any installation writes to the system volume and can fail partway through, and a clean install deliberately erases what is already there, so a missing or unverified backup turns a routine job into permanent data loss. Verification is part of the step because a backup that has never been test-restored has not been proven to work.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — upgrade considerations (backup files and user preferences)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. A Windows workstation takes several minutes to become usable after sign-in because many applications launch automatically. Which built-in tool should the technician use to see each auto-start item's impact and disable the unnecessary ones?

   • A.Disk Cleanup
   • B.Device Manager
   • C.Task Manager's Startup tab✓ Answer
   • D.The System Configuration utility's Services tab

   In current Windows releases the list of per-user startup applications, including a startup-impact rating for each one, is managed on Task Manager's Startup tab. The System Configuration utility is the classic wrong answer because it no longer manages these entries; Device Manager handles hardware and drivers and Disk Cleanup only removes temporary files.

   Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — Windows features and tools (Task Manager: Startup)Report a problem with this question

10. 10. A drive is suspected of having physically damaged sectors in addition to file-system errors, and the technician wants readable data recovered from those sectors. Which disk-check option is correct, and why?

    • A.chkdsk /r, because it locates bad sectors and recovers readable information and also performs the error fixing that /f does✓ Answer
    • B.A quick format, because it rewrites the file table and repairs the sectors
    • C.chkdsk with no switches, because reporting the errors is enough to repair the volume
    • D.chkdsk /f, because it is faster and does everything the other switch does

    The /f switch fixes only logical file-system errors, while /r implies /f and additionally scans the entire disk surface for bad sectors and recovers whatever data is still readable, which is why it takes far longer. Running chkdsk with no switch reports status without repairing anything, and a quick format destroys data rather than recovering it.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — Microsoft command-line tools (chkdsk /f vs /r)Report a problem with this question

11. 11. A Windows user cannot reach network resources. The technician needs to see the workstation's physical (MAC) address, whether an address was leased from DHCP, and which DNS servers are assigned. Which command displays all of this?

    • A.netstat -a
    • B.tracert
    • C.ping
    • D.ipconfig /all✓ Answer

    ipconfig displays the local adapter's IP configuration, and the /all switch expands that output to include the hardware (MAC) address, DHCP lease information, and the configured DNS servers. ping only tests reachability of a target, tracert maps the hop-by-hop path to a destination, and netstat lists local connections and listening ports.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — Microsoft command-line tools (ipconfig /all)Report a problem with this question

12. 12. Users can reach a web server by typing its IP address but not by its host name. Which command-line utility best confirms whether name resolution is returning the correct record?

    • A.chkdsk
    • B.nslookup✓ Answer
    • C.hostname
    • D.netstat

    nslookup queries a DNS server directly and shows the record returned for a given name, which isolates a name-resolution failure from a general connectivity failure — exactly the symptom described when the IP works but the name does not. netstat shows local connections, chkdsk checks a disk, and hostname only prints the local computer's own name.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — Microsoft command-line tools (nslookup, DNS troubleshooting)Report a problem with this question

13. 13. A standard user runs a system file checker scan from a command prompt and receives an "access denied" message. Why does this command require an administrative (elevated) command prompt?

    • A.Because the command must run before the bootloader loads
    • B.Because the command sends data over the network and needs a firewall exception
    • C.Because it modifies protected operating-system files and volume-level structures, which are outside a standard user's rights✓ Answer
    • D.Because only administrators are licensed to use command-line tools

    Commands that repair protected system files, lock a volume, or alter partitions change resources shared by every account on the machine, so the OS only permits them under an elevated security token. A standard user's token deliberately lacks that write access — this is the principle of least privilege working as designed, not a licensing or network restriction.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — command-line tools requiring elevation; Security domain — user account control and least privilegeReport a problem with this question

14. 14. What does virtual memory (paging) provide on a modern operating system?

    • A.It lets the OS move less-active memory pages to a file on disk so the total addressable memory can exceed the installed RAM✓ Answer
    • B.It encrypts the contents of memory so other users cannot read them
    • C.It permanently replaces RAM with a faster storage tier
    • D.It reserves system memory exclusively for the graphics adapter

    The memory manager pages inactive blocks of memory out to a paging file on disk and reads them back on demand, so applications can address more memory than is physically installed. Because disk storage is far slower than RAM, excessive paging produces the severe slowdown known as thrashing — virtual memory extends capacity, it does not replace RAM or make it faster.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — Windows settings and system performance (virtual memory / paging file)Report a problem with this question

15. 15. After a driver installation a workstation becomes unstable. The technician wants to return system files, drivers, and configuration to their earlier state without touching the user's documents. Which mechanism is designed for this?

    • A.Clearing the browser cache
    • B.Disk defragmentation
    • C.A full format of the system disk
    • D.A system restore point (OS snapshot)✓ Answer

    A restore point is a snapshot of system files, installed drivers, and configuration captured before a significant change, so rolling back to it reverses the change while leaving personal data files alone. That also means it is not a substitute for a data backup, and formatting, defragmenting, or clearing a cache do none of what is asked.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — OS recovery and restore mechanisms (restore points / snapshots)Report a problem with this question

16. 16. A user signed in with an administrator account is prompted for confirmation whenever an application tries to make a system-wide change. Why does this prompt appear?

    • A.Because the account password has expired
    • B.Because sessions run with a filtered standard-user token by default, so any action needing full administrative rights must be explicitly elevated and consented to✓ Answer
    • C.To verify the application's software license
    • D.Because the application is unsigned and will be blocked no matter how the user answers

    User Account Control implements least privilege: even an administrator's interactive session runs with a filtered standard token, and full rights are granted only for the one action the user approves. That is what stops a background process or malware from quietly acquiring administrative rights just because an admin happens to be logged in.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Security domain — Windows OS security settings (User Account Control, least privilege, account types)Report a problem with this question

17. 17. A folder's share permission for a group is Read, while its file-system (NTFS) permission for the same group is Full Control. What can a member of that group do when connecting to the folder over the network?

    • A.Full Control, because file-system permissions always override share permissions
    • B.Read only, because the effective network permission is the more restrictive of the combined share and combined file-system permissions✓ Answer
    • C.Change, because the two permission levels are averaged
    • D.Nothing, because the two permission sets conflict and cancel each other

    Share permissions apply only to access arriving over the network, file-system permissions apply both locally and remotely, and when both are involved the effective result is the most restrictive of the two combined sets — here, Read. Signed in locally at that machine the same user would get Full Control, because share permissions would not be evaluated at all.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Security domain — Windows OS security settings (share vs NTFS permissions, most-restrictive effective permission)Report a problem with this question

18. 18. A file in folder A carries Read-only permissions. The technician moves that file to folder B on the SAME volume, and separately copies a second file from A to B. Folder B grants Modify. What permissions result?

    • A.The moved file inherits Modify; the copied file keeps Read-only
    • B.Both files keep Read-only
    • C.The moved file keeps Read-only; the copied file inherits Modify from folder B✓ Answer
    • D.Both files end up with Modify

    Moving a file within the same volume only updates the directory entry — the file object and its attached permission list are never rewritten, so the original permissions travel with it. Copying creates a brand-new object at the destination, which therefore inherits the destination folder's permissions; a move to a *different* volume is internally a copy plus a delete, so it behaves like a copy.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Security domain — Windows OS security settings (permission inheritance on move vs copy)Report a problem with this question

19. 19. A subfolder currently inherits its permissions from its parent folder. The technician disables inheritance on the subfolder and then adds an explicit Deny for a group whose members also belong to a group that is Allowed. What is the result?

    • A.The subfolder no longer receives permission changes from the parent, and the affected users are denied, because an explicit Deny overrides an Allow✓ Answer
    • B.The Deny applies only to local sign-in and never to network access
    • C.The Allow wins, because permissions from multiple group memberships always accumulate with no exceptions
    • D.Disabling inheritance leaves the subfolder with no permissions at all until a new parent is selected

    Breaking inheritance detaches the child object from the parent's permission flow, so later changes on the parent no longer propagate down (the technician chooses whether to convert the inherited entries to explicit ones or remove them). Permissions from a user's group memberships normally accumulate, but an explicit Deny takes precedence over any Allow, so the deny wins regardless of the other membership.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Security domain — Windows OS security settings (permission inheritance, Deny overrides Allow, cumulative group permissions)Report a problem with this question

20. 20. On a Linux system a technician sets a script's mode to 755. What access does that grant?

    • A.Owner read and write; group and others read only
    • B.Owner read only; no access for group or others
    • C.Read, write, and execute for everyone
    • D.Owner read, write, and execute; group and others read and execute✓ Answer

    Linux file modes are three digits — owner, group, others — each built by adding read = 4, write = 2, and execute = 1. So 7 = 4+2+1 gives the owner read, write, and execute, while 5 = 4+1 gives group and others read and execute, which is the normal setting for a script anyone may run but only the owner may change.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — Linux file management and permissions (chmod numeric values)Report a problem with this question

21. 21. A Linux administrator wants to run one command with elevated rights, authenticate with their own password, and have the action logged. Which command fits, and how does it differ from the alternative?

    • A.Neither, because Linux requires signing in directly as root to make administrative changes
    • B.Either one, because both require the root account's password
    • C.su, because it elevates a single command using the current user's own password
    • D.sudo, because it runs one command with elevated rights using the invoking user's own password, governed by a policy file and logged; su instead switches to another account and requires that account's password✓ Answer

    sudo grants per-command elevation controlled by a central policy file that names who may run what, prompts for the caller's own password, and writes an audit entry — so the root password never has to be shared. su authenticates as the target account and hands over a full shell with its privileges, which is why disabling direct root login and using sudo is the least-privilege practice.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — Linux administrative commands (sudo vs su, root account)Report a problem with this question

22. 22. On macOS, a technician downloads an application delivered as a disk image (.dmg). What is the normal installation and later removal process?

    • A.Mount the disk image and drag the application bundle into the Applications folder; remove it later by moving that bundle to the Trash✓ Answer
    • B.Install it with a repository package manager and remove it with the same tool
    • C.Register it in a package installer database, then remove it from an add/remove programs list
    • D.Extract it into the protected system folder, because applications must live alongside the OS files

    A .dmg is a mountable disk image containing an application bundle — a folder the OS presents as a single item — so installing means copying that bundle into the Applications folder and uninstalling means deleting it. macOS has no add/remove-programs applet, the system folder is reserved and protected for OS files, and repository package managers are the Linux model.

    Source: CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam objectives, Operating Systems domain — macOS features and tools (application installation by file type, system folders)Report a problem with this question

Practice questions written to the published CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2 exam objectives and to standard IT support practice. CompTIA and A+ are marks of CompTIA; this site is not affiliated with or endorsed by CompTIA. The exam objectives are revised periodically — confirm the current objectives and exam requirements with CompTIA before testing. About the CompTIA A+ certification →