29 Operations Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. You find an unconscious adult who was struck by a car. There is no family or guardian present. Under what type of consent may you treat him?

   • A.Involuntary consent
   • B.Expressed consent
   • C.Implied consent✓ Answer
   • D.Informed consent

   Implied consent is the legal presumption that an unresponsive or otherwise incompetent patient would consent to the lifesaving care a reasonable person would want under the circumstances.

   Ref QB-RWAGWASource: U.S. medical-legal standard — doctrine of implied consent for the unresponsive/incompetent patientReport a problem with this question

2. 2. Which patient may legally refuse emergency medical care?

   • A.An alert, oriented adult who knows the risks✓ Answer
   • B.An adult knocked unconscious by a head injury
   • C.A 15-year-old with a minor laceration, alone
   • D.A visibly intoxicated adult who is confused

   Only a competent adult who is alert, oriented, and able to understand the risks and consequences of refusal may legally decline care; intoxication, altered mentation, and minor status all invalidate a refusal.

   Ref QB-2EZAA3Source: U.S. medical-legal standard — valid refusal requires a competent, alert, oriented adultReport a problem with this question

3. 3. A patient later sues, claiming an EMT harmed them. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence?

   • A.Damages and proximate causation
   • B.Malicious intent to harm the patient✓ Answer
   • C.The provider's legal duty to act
   • D.A breach of the standard of care

   The four elements of negligence are duty to act, breach of that duty (standard of care), damages/harm, and proximate causation linking the breach to the harm; malicious intent is not required—negligence is about a failure to meet the standard, not intent.

   Ref QB-HWT5Q2Source: U.S. tort law — four elements of negligence: duty, breach, damages, causationReport a problem with this question

4. 4. An EMT begins caring for a patient, then leaves the scene before another provider of equal or higher training takes over. This is best described as:

   • A.Battery
   • B.False imprisonment
   • C.Assault
   • D.Abandonment✓ Answer

   Abandonment is terminating care of a patient without ensuring that care is transferred to a provider of equal or higher training once a duty to act has been established.

   Ref QB-TMDPW2Source: U.S. medical-legal standard — definition of abandonment (transfer to equal/higher care)Report a problem with this question

5. 5. You respond to a patient in respiratory distress who has a valid, signed DNR order. The DNR means you should:

   • A.Begin CPR at once despite the order
   • B.Withhold all care and only monitor him
   • C.Refuse to transport the patient at all
   • D.Provide comfort and supportive care✓ Answer

   A valid DNR directs only that resuscitation (CPR) be withheld in cardiac/respiratory arrest; it does not withhold care, so you must still provide comfort and supportive measures such as oxygen, positioning, and suctioning.

   Ref QB-B5KUG3Source: Advance directive / DNR standard — withholds resuscitation only; comfort care continuesReport a problem with this question

6. 6. Under HIPAA, in which situation may you share a patient's protected health information (PHI) without specific written authorization?

   • A.Telling a curious off-duty coworker about the call
   • B.Posting details on social media with no name
   • C.Giving a verbal report to the receiving hospital✓ Answer
   • D.Describing the patient to a friend who asks

   HIPAA permits disclosure of PHI for treatment, payment, and health-care operations (or when legally required); handing off to the receiving hospital is a treatment disclosure, whereas the other options are unauthorized breaches even without a name.

   Ref QB-UMRZ34Source: HIPAA Privacy Rule — permitted disclosures for treatment, payment, operationsReport a problem with this question

7. 7. In the Incident Command System, which of the following is a Command Staff position rather than a General Staff section?

   • A.Operations Section
   • B.Planning Section
   • C.Logistics Section
   • D.Safety Officer✓ Answer

   The Command Staff consists of the Safety Officer, Public Information Officer, and Liaison Officer, who report directly to the Incident Commander; Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration are the General Staff sections.

   Ref QB-D5AHU5Source: NIMS/ICS structure — Command Staff (Safety, PIO, Liaison) vs. General Staff sectionsReport a problem with this question

8. 8. In ICS, what is the recommended span of control—the number of subordinates one supervisor should manage?

   • A.1 to 2 subordinates
   • B.Unlimited, as needed
   • C.3 to 7 subordinates✓ Answer
   • D.8 to 12 subordinates

   Effective span of control in ICS is 3 to 7 subordinates per supervisor, with 5 being optimal; exceeding this range degrades supervision, so command is subdivided to keep spans manageable.

   Ref QB-WMFPE6Source: NIMS/ICS principle — span of control 3–7 (optimal 5)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. A medical helicopter has landed and the pilot signals you to approach. How should you approach the aircraft?

   • A.From the uphill side when on a slope
   • B.From any direction while staying crouched
   • C.From the front, within the pilot's view✓ Answer
   • D.From the rear, passing the tail rotor

   Always approach a helicopter from the front within the pilot's line of sight and only after being signaled; the spinning tail rotor is nearly invisible and deadly, so you must never approach from the rear, and on a slope you approach from the downhill side.

   Ref QB-E5NUZ6Source: Air medical LZ safety — approach from front in pilot's view; never the tail rotorReport a problem with this question

10. 10. You are driving to a call with lights and siren activated and approach a red traffic light at an intersection. What is required of you?

    • A.Stop, and then proceed with due regard when clear✓ Answer
    • B.Proceed through the red light without slowing
    • C.Emergency status exempts you from traffic laws
    • D.The siren legally grants you the right of way

    Lights and siren only request the right of way; under the due-regard standard the operator remains legally responsible for everyone's safety, so you must stop at a red light and proceed cautiously only when clear—most ambulance collisions occur at intersections.

    Ref QB-TDXY8RSource: Emergency vehicle operation — due regard standard; siren requests, not grants, right of wayReport a problem with this question

11. 11. You and a partner must lift a heavy stretcher. Which technique best protects you from injury?

    • A.Hold the weight out away from the body
    • B.Twist toward the cot while lifting it
    • C.Keep the back straight and use the legs✓ Answer
    • D.Bend at the waist and lift with the back

    The power lift keeps the back straight and locked while using the stronger leg muscles, with the weight held close to the body and no twisting, which minimizes spinal strain and injury.

    Ref QB-BW46URSource: EMS body mechanics — power lift: straight back, lift with legs, load close, no twistingReport a problem with this question

12. 12. In which situation is an emergency move (such as a clothes drag) justified before completing a full assessment and spinal precautions?

    • A.When the stretcher is parked too far away
    • B.For every trauma patient, to save time
    • C.Only when there is an immediate danger✓ Answer
    • D.Whenever the patient asks to be moved

    An emergency move is used only when an immediate danger (fire, explosion, hazardous materials, or the need to reach a critical patient) outweighs the risk of moving without full spinal precautions; you drag along the long axis of the body to protect the spine.

    Ref QB-NVE7R7Source: Patient movement — emergency move indicated only for immediate danger; drag along long axisReport a problem with this question

13. 13. You receive a medication order by radio from online medical control. Before administering the medication, you should:

    • A.Use the patient's full name on the air
    • B.Carry out the order without confirming it
    • C.Repeat the order back to medical control✓ Answer
    • D.Give your own diagnosis over the radio

    You echo (repeat back) orders received from medical control so the physician can confirm the order was received accurately before you act, which reduces medication and dosing errors.

    Ref QB-5D9267Source: EMS communications — echo/repeat-back of medical control orders to confirm accuracyReport a problem with this question

14. 14. After completing your patient care report (PCR), you notice you wrote the wrong blood pressure. How should you correct this error on the legal document?

    • A.Throw out the report and start a new one
    • B.Draw a single line through it, initial it✓ Answer
    • C.Erase it and write in the correct value
    • D.Cover it with correction fluid and rewrite

    Because the PCR is a legal document, errors are corrected by drawing a single line through the mistake (leaving it legible), writing the correction, and adding your initials and the date; erasing or obliterating an entry suggests falsification.

    Ref QB-PVSHW8Source: PCR documentation standard — single line through error, correction, initial and date; never eraseReport a problem with this question

15. 15. Twenty people are injured in a building collapse and only two ambulances are on scene. What is the purpose of using a formal triage system here?

    • A.Making sure every patient receives the same level of care before any transport begins
    • B.Sorting patients by urgency so limited crews and transport reach those most likely to benefit✓ Answer
    • C.Recording each patient's name and injuries so the hospital can prepare beds in advance
    • D.Finding the most severely injured patient so that patient is treated and transported first

    Triage exists to match scarce crews, equipment and transport to need: patients are sorted by how urgently care will change their outcome, so the few resources present do the most good. Giving everyone identical care, or committing both units to the single worst patient, leaves salvageable patients unattended.

    Ref QB-QV5V3ASource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: Multiple-Casualty Incident management (principles of triage)Report a problem with this question

16. 16. At a multiple-casualty incident a patient is tagged DELAYED (yellow). What does that tag say about the patient's condition?

    • A.The injuries are minor and the patient can walk to a collection area without help
    • B.The injuries are so severe that survival is unlikely with the resources on scene
    • C.The injuries include a life threat that must be treated before any patient is moved
    • D.The injuries are serious, but treatment can wait a while without costing life or limb✓ Answer

    DELAYED (yellow) describes an injury that is genuinely serious and will need definitive care, but that tolerates a wait without loss of life or limb — a closed long-bone fracture with good perfusion is the classic example. The walking wounded are MINOR (green) and an immediate life threat is IMMEDIATE (red).

    Ref QB-7DYPG9Source: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: triage categories used in START (Immediate, Delayed, Minor, Expectant)Report a problem with this question

17. 17. A patient you tagged DELAYED has been carried to the treatment area. Twenty minutes later he is breathing faster and his radial pulse has weakened. What should happen?

    • A.He is re-triaged at the treatment area and moved up in priority for transport✓ Answer
    • B.He keeps the tag he was given, because categories are fixed after the first sweep
    • C.He is sent back to the triage officer so the whole scene can be sorted again
    • D.He is moved to the minor area, since he was already sorted and is still breathing

    Triage is continuous rather than a single label: patients are reassessed in the treatment area and again at loading, because conditions change after the initial sweep. A rising respiratory rate with a weakening radial pulse signals deteriorating perfusion, which moves this patient into a higher transport priority.

    Ref QB-RVG79BSource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: MCI management (secondary triage and reassessment in the treatment area)Report a problem with this question

18. 18. You arrive at a two-car collision on a two-lane road. Fire apparatus already blocks the lane upstream and there is no fire or fuel leak. Where should you park the ambulance?

    • A.About 100 feet before the wreck in the traffic lane, to shield the crew from oncoming cars
    • B.Directly beside the wreck in the opposing lane, to shorten the carry to the ambulance doors
    • C.Behind the fire apparatus facing traffic, so approaching drivers see your lights sooner
    • D.About 100 feet past the wreck on the same side, with loading shielded and a forward exit✓ Answer

    Parking past the incident on the same side puts the wreck and the blocking apparatus between the working crew and approaching traffic, keeps the loading doors out of the live travel lane, and lets the unit leave forward instead of backing through the scene. Blocking traffic is the job of the fire apparatus or law enforcement, not of the transport unit.

    Ref QB-8DB2PASource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: emergency vehicle operations and apparatus placement for roadway incident safetyReport a problem with this question

19. 19. A chemical release has been divided into hot, warm, and cold zones. Where do the ambulance and the treatment area belong, and when may a patient be loaded?

    • A.In the warm zone; the patient is loaded as soon as gross decontamination has begun
    • B.In the cold zone; the patient is loaded before decontamination if the injuries are life threatening
    • C.At the edge of the hot zone; the patient is decontaminated during transport to the hospital
    • D.In the cold zone; the patient is loaded after decontamination is finished in the warm zone✓ Answer

    The EMT works in the cold zone, where command, staging and treatment are located, while the warm zone holds the decontamination corridor. Loading a contaminated patient would contaminate the crew, the vehicle and later the emergency department, so decontamination is completed before the patient enters the ambulance.

    Ref QB-SVUHECSource: OSHA Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response standard, 29 CFR 1910.120(q) — site control zones and decontamination of victimsReport a problem with this question

20. 20. You are responding to a patient who is vomiting repeatedly, and you expect to suction his airway. Which personal protective equipment should you select before patient contact?

    • A.Gloves, a face mask, and eye protection, since body fluid is likely to splash✓ Answer
    • B.Gloves alone, since intact skin is a sufficient barrier against stomach contents
    • C.Gloves and an N95 respirator, since vomiting spreads infection by the airborne route
    • D.Gloves and a fluid-resistant gown, keeping the mask for a known infectious patient

    PPE is chosen from the route of exposure you expect. Vomiting and suctioning throw splashes and sprays of body fluid toward the face, so the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose and mouth must be covered in addition to the hands; a respirator addresses airborne transmission, which is not the hazard in this call.

    Ref QB-9DPCUBSource: CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions — Standard Precautions: PPE selection based on anticipated exposure to blood and body fluidsReport a problem with this question

21. 21. While cleaning the ambulance after a call, a used needle left on the stretcher punctures your finger. In what order should you act?

    • A.Wash with soap and water, notify the infection control officer, then get medical evaluation✓ Answer
    • B.Notify the infection control officer and wash the site once the source test result is known
    • C.Finish cleaning and disinfecting the unit, then report the stick to the supervisor at shift end
    • D.Squeeze the wound to bleed it and apply antiseptic, reporting only if the source is infected

    The exposure sequence is immediate decontamination of the site, prompt notification of the designated infection control officer, and medical evaluation with source testing and follow-up, with the whole event documented. Holding the report until the end of the shift can forfeit time-sensitive post-exposure prophylaxis, and squeezing the wound is not a recommended measure.

    Ref QB-3U4DYPSource: OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1030 — exposure incident reporting, evaluation and follow-upReport a problem with this question

22. 22. You are transferring care at the emergency department bedside. Beyond what you already gave in your radio report, what must the verbal hand-off include?

    • A.The unit number, dispatch and on-scene times, and the mileage for the transport
    • B.A working diagnosis of the injury, so the nurse can begin the orders without delay
    • C.The patient's insurance and home address, so registration can be finished quickly
    • D.Any change in the patient's condition, the care given en route, and the response to it✓ Answer

    The radio report was a prediction made early; the bedside hand-off is the account of what actually happened. The receiving provider needs every change in condition, everything done en route and how the patient responded, because anything omitted there is care that is missed or needlessly repeated — which makes an incomplete hand-off a patient-safety failure rather than a paperwork lapse.

    Ref QB-KBAJJQSource: The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goal on hand-off communication; National EMS Education Standards — transfer of careReport a problem with this question

23. 23. You are dispatched to a reported industrial injury. Which set of information should you obtain from dispatch before or while responding?

    • A.Exact location, the patient's insurance status, a family phone number, and the billing address
    • B.Exact location, nature of the call, number of patients, known hazards, and a callback number✓ Answer
    • C.Exact location, the receiving hospital's name, its available bed count, and the physician on duty
    • D.Exact location, the caller's full name and date of birth, and the employer's insurance carrier

    Dispatch information exists to shape the response: the location and callback number let you reach and confirm the scene, the nature of the call and the number of patients tell you whether additional units are needed before you commit, and known hazards determine your approach, staging and PPE. Billing details and hospital bed counts change nothing about how you respond.

    Ref QB-2UR2TNSource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: phases of an ambulance call (dispatch information obtained by the crew)Report a problem with this question

24. 24. Your shift check shows the onboard suction unit cannot develop enough vacuum to clear an airway, and no spare unit is at the station. What is the correct action?

    • A.Stay in service and borrow a suction unit from the hospital on your first transport
    • B.Notify the supervisor and place the unit out of service until the suction is repaired✓ Answer
    • C.Enter service and rely on patient positioning to clear an airway if one is needed
    • D.Note the defect on the checklist and leave the repair for the next crew to arrange

    Ensuring that equipment is in proper working order is one of the EMT's defined operational duties, and suction is required equipment because a crew that cannot clear a soiled airway cannot manage the most time-critical emergency there is. The deficiency is reported and the unit placed out of service per protocol rather than responding with a known critical failure.

    Ref QB-JBX7DPSource: NREMT EMT Examination Specifications — Operations job task: ensure the equipment is in proper working orderReport a problem with this question

25. 25. Which entry in a patient care report is an objective finding rather than a subjective one?

    • A.The patient states that the chest pain feels like pressure and began an hour ago
    • B.The patient's skin is pale, cool and damp, and the radial pulse is 118✓ Answer
    • C.The patient appears to be exaggerating the amount of pain he is reporting
    • D.The patient's daughter believes he has been depressed for several weeks

    Objective information is what the provider measures or directly observes — skin color and temperature, a counted pulse, what the patient physically did. What the patient or a family member reports is subjective, and a judgement that a patient is exaggerating is an opinion, which does not belong in the record in any form.

    Ref QB-ZTDQMMSource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: documentation, objective versus subjective information in the patient care reportReport a problem with this question

26. 26. An hour after submitting your patient care report, you realize you left out a medication the patient had taken. How should the record be corrected?

    • A.Add a separate dated entry marked as an addendum and signed by the report's author✓ Answer
    • B.Open the original narrative and insert the medication where it belongs in the history
    • C.Leave the filed report alone and tell the receiving nurse by telephone about the drug
    • D.Ask a supervisor to void the report so a corrected one can be written from the start

    Once a report has been submitted it is not rewritten; the correction is added as a separate late entry, clearly identified as an addendum and carrying its own date and the author's signature, so both the original record and the time the correction was made remain visible. Altering a filed narrative destroys the integrity of the legal record even when the new information is true.

    Ref QB-HBKV7NSource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: documentation, correction of errors and late entries/addenda after submissionReport a problem with this question

27. 27. An alert, oriented adult with a minor laceration refuses transport. Which record best protects both the patient and the crew?

    • A.A short note that the patient refused transport, with the call time and the crew names
    • B.An assessment showing capacity, the risks explained, the offer to return, and a signature✓ Answer
    • C.A note that the patient was not examined, because assessing a refusal exceeds EMT scope
    • D.A statement from a family member that he refused, in place of the patient's signature

    A refusal is only valid if it is informed and made by someone able to decide, so the record has to show the assessment supporting capacity, that the specific risks of refusing were explained in terms the patient understood, that transport was offered and the patient was told to call back if anything changes, and it must carry the patient's signature, ideally witnessed. A bare note that the patient refused proves none of that.

    Ref QB-YT2DFKSource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: documentation of patient refusal (capacity, informed risks, offer to return, signature and witness)Report a problem with this question

28. 28. A rescue crew is cutting the roof off a car to free a trapped driver. What is the EMT's role while that work goes on?

    • A.Shield and monitor the patient, manage the airway, and speak for his care needs✓ Answer
    • B.Operate the hydraulic tool alongside the rescue crew so the driver is freed sooner
    • C.Direct the crew on which cuts to make, since patient care outranks vehicle work
    • D.Stand clear of the car until the driver is fully extricated and handed over

    During extrication the EMT is the patient's caregiver and advocate: protecting him from glass, debris and noise, maintaining the airway and manual stabilization, watching for deterioration and telling the rescue officer when the patient's condition calls for a faster route out. Running the tools requires separate training and belongs to the rescue crew, and leaving the patient unattended forfeits the monitoring that makes the advocacy possible.

    Ref QB-GB8J2MSource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: vehicle extrication, the EMT's role in patient care and advocacy during extricationReport a problem with this question

29. 29. Police have secured a stabbing scene and clear you to enter and treat the patient. How should you work inside?

    • A.Take the most direct path in and out, touch only what care requires, and note any moves✓ Answer
    • B.Move the furniture and objects aside first so the crew has room around the patient
    • C.Wait outside until investigators have photographed the room and collected the evidence
    • D.Pick up the weapon and hand it to an officer so that it cannot be used against the crew

    Patient care comes first, but the scene is also evidence that investigators must be able to reconstruct. Using a single direct path in and out, limiting what you touch or move, and documenting whatever you did move preserves the scene while care proceeds; handling the weapon adds your prints and destroys its position, and waiting for the investigation delays treatment the patient needs now.

    Ref QB-XTP2AJSource: National EMS Education Standards — EMS Operations: crime scene awareness and preservation of evidence during patient careReport a problem with this question

Practice questions modeled on the National EMS Education Standards and NREMT cognitive-exam content areas. Not medical advice and not affiliated with or endorsed by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) or NHTSA. Always follow your instructor, medical director, and local protocols. Study the official materials at nremt.org. Official NREMT →