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16 Patient Safety & Order Processing Practice Questions & Answers

Every Patient Safety & Order Processing practice question from the Pharmacy Technician (PTCB) Practice Test, with the correct answer and a short explanation.

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  1. 1. Which of the following is a REQUIRED element of a valid outpatient prescription for a non-controlled drug?

    • A.The manufacturer's lot number
    • B.The patient's Social Security number
    • C.The prescriber's name, and the drug name, strength, and directions for use✓ Answer
    • D.The pharmacy's wholesale acquisition cost

    A valid prescription must identify the prescriber and the medication (drug name, strength/dose, quantity, and directions/sig) along with patient identifiers and a date, because these elements let the pharmacist dispense the correct drug and counsel the patient. Cost, SSN, and lot number are not required prescription elements.

    Source: PTCB Order Entry & Processing; required elements of a prescription (21 CFR 1306.05 principles for Rx completeness)Report a problem with this question

  2. 2. The National Drug Code (NDC) is an 11-digit number divided into three segments. What do the three segments identify, in order?

    • A.Therapeutic class, dose, and route
    • B.Pharmacy, prescriber, and patient
    • C.Expiration date, lot, and price
    • D.Labeler (manufacturer), product, and package size✓ Answer

    The NDC's three segments identify the labeler/manufacturer, the specific product (strength, dosage form, formulation), and the package size, which lets the FDA and pharmacies uniquely identify every marketed drug package. It contains no patient, price, or expiration information.

    Source: FDA National Drug Code Directory; NDC structure (labeler-product-package)Report a problem with this question

  3. 3. A prescription reads: amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL suspension, 1 teaspoonful (5 mL) three times daily. A 150 mL bottle is dispensed. What is the days supply?

    • A.15 days
    • B.7 days
    • C.30 days
    • D.10 days✓ Answer

    The patient uses 5 mL x 3 times/day = 15 mL per day. Dividing the total volume by the daily use: 150 mL / 15 mL per day = 10 days. Accurate days supply is required for correct billing and refill timing.

    Source: PTCB Pharmacy Calculations; days supply = total quantity / quantity used per dayReport a problem with this question

  4. 4. A prescription is written for metformin 500 mg, take 1 tablet twice daily for 90 days. What quantity should be dispensed?

    • A.120 tablets
    • B.180 tablets✓ Answer
    • C.90 tablets
    • D.270 tablets

    Twice daily means 2 tablets per day, so 2 tablets/day x 90 days = 180 tablets. Quantity to dispense is calculated as (number of doses per day) x (dose units per dose) x (days supply).

    Source: PTCB Pharmacy Calculations; quantity to dispense = doses per day x days supplyReport a problem with this question

  5. 5. A pharmacy stocks epinephrine 1:1000 injection. How many grams of epinephrine are contained in a 1 L (1000 mL) volume of this concentration?

    • A.10 grams
    • B.1 gram✓ Answer
    • C.0.1 gram
    • D.100 grams

    A ratio strength of 1:1000 means 1 gram of drug in 1000 mL of solution. Therefore 1000 mL contains exactly 1 gram. Ratio strengths are always expressed as grams of solid (or mL of liquid) per total mL of preparation.

    Source: PTCB Pharmacy Calculations; ratio strength = 1 g solute per denominator mLReport a problem with this question

  6. 6. A cream is labeled 2 g of active drug in 100 g of cream. What is its percentage (w/w) concentration?

    • A.0.02%
    • B.2%✓ Answer
    • C.20%
    • D.0.2%

    Percent weight-in-weight is grams of drug per 100 g of product. With 2 g in 100 g, that is directly 2% w/w. Percentage strength always expresses the amount of active per 100 units of the total preparation.

    Source: PTCB Pharmacy Calculations; % w/w = g drug per 100 g productReport a problem with this question

  7. 7. A patient uses 20 units of U-100 insulin (100 units/mL) daily from a 10 mL vial. How many days will one vial last?

    • A.20 days
    • B.100 days
    • C.50 days✓ Answer
    • D.10 days

    A 10 mL U-100 vial contains 10 mL x 100 units/mL = 1000 units. Dividing by daily use: 1000 units / 20 units per day = 50 days. Correctly converting concentration to total units is essential for insulin days-supply calculations.

    Source: PTCB Pharmacy Calculations; total units = volume x concentration, then divide by daily doseReport a problem with this question

  8. 8. What is the primary purpose of using 'tall man' lettering (e.g., hydrOXYzine vs. hydrALAZINE)?

    • A.To mark the drug as available over the counter
    • B.To reduce mix-ups between look-alike/sound-alike drug names✓ Answer
    • C.To show the drug must be refrigerated
    • D.To indicate the drug is a controlled substance

    Tall man lettering capitalizes the differing letters of look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug names to draw the eye to the differences, reducing selection and dispensing errors. It is a recognized ISMP/FDA error-prevention strategy, not a marker of schedule, storage, or OTC status.

    Source: ISMP/FDA Tall Man Lettering list; PTCB Patient Safety & Quality AssuranceReport a problem with this question

  9. 9. During dispensing, a pharmacy technician scans the barcode on the stock bottle against the prescription. What is the main safety benefit of barcode scanning at this step?

    • A.It automatically counts the co-pay
    • B.It verifies the correct drug/NDC was selected before it reaches the patient✓ Answer
    • C.It refrigerates the medication
    • D.It replaces the pharmacist's final verification entirely

    Barcode scanning matches the NDC on the stock bottle to the product on the order, catching wrong-drug/wrong-strength selection errors before dispensing. It is a check that supports, but does not replace, the pharmacist's final verification.

    Source: PTCB Patient Safety & Quality Assurance; barcode verification (NDC match)Report a problem with this question

  10. 10. In inventory management, what does a 'par level' represent?

    • A.The number of times a drug can be refilled
    • B.The minimum quantity of a product that should be kept on the shelf before reordering✓ Answer
    • C.The DEA schedule of a controlled substance
    • D.The maximum wholesale price allowed for a drug

    A par level is the minimum on-hand quantity that triggers reordering, set to prevent stockouts while avoiding overstock. Maintaining par levels keeps needed drugs available without tying up excess inventory that could expire.

    Source: PTCB Order Entry & Processing / Inventory Management; par level definitionReport a problem with this question

  11. 11. When restocking shelves, a technician places newly received stock behind existing stock with earlier expiration dates. What inventory principle is this?

    • A.First-Expired, First-Out (FEFO) stock rotation✓ Answer
    • B.Last-In, First-Out based on cost
    • C.Random placement to save time
    • D.Alphabetical-only ordering

    Placing product with the nearest expiration date at the front ensures it is used first, which is First-Expired, First-Out (FEFO) rotation. This minimizes waste from expired drugs and helps prevent dispensing outdated medication.

    Source: PTCB Inventory Management; FEFO stock rotationReport a problem with this question

  12. 12. During prescription intake, a technician notices the drug name on a new prescription is illegible and could be one of two similar medications. What is the correct action?

    • A.Choose the cheaper drug to save the patient money
    • B.Dispense both and let the patient decide
    • C.Refer it to the pharmacist to clarify with the prescriber before processing✓ Answer
    • D.Guess the more commonly prescribed of the two and dispense it

    Any ambiguity in the drug identity must be resolved by the pharmacist contacting the prescriber for clarification before the order is processed, because guessing risks a serious dispensing error. Technicians must not interpret or select an unclear drug on their own.

    Source: PTCB Order Entry & Processing; prescription clarification / scope of technician practiceReport a problem with this question

  13. 13. What is the main purpose of Drug Utilization Review (DUR) performed during order processing?

    • A.To determine the retail price markup
    • B.To rotate stock by expiration date
    • C.To screen for problems such as drug interactions, duplicate therapy, allergies, and incorrect dosing✓ Answer
    • D.To assign the NDC number to the product

    A DUR screens the prescription against the patient's profile for interactions, therapeutic duplication, allergies, contraindications, and dosing errors so problems are caught before dispensing. Its purpose is patient safety, not pricing, stock rotation, or NDC assignment.

    Source: PTCB Patient Safety & Quality Assurance; Drug Utilization Review (DUR)Report a problem with this question

  14. 14. Per ISMP safe-writing standards for preventing dosing errors, which of the following expresses a medication dose CORRECTLY?

    • A.5.0 mg (trailing zero after the decimal)
    • B.1.0 mg (trailing zero after the decimal)
    • C..5 mg (no leading zero before the decimal)
    • D.0.5 mg (leading zero before the decimal, no trailing zero)✓ Answer

    A leading zero must always precede a decimal point for doses less than one (0.5 mg) so a naked '.5' is not misread as '5'; conversely, a trailing zero must never follow a whole number (5.0 or 1.0) because if the decimal point is missed the dose reads as a tenfold overdose. Only '0.5 mg' follows both rules.

    Source: ISMP List of Error-Prone Abbreviations, Symbols, and Dose Designations (trailing zero / leading zero rule); PTCB Patient Safety & Quality AssuranceReport a problem with this question

  15. 15. The FDA classifies drug recalls into three classes by risk. Which situation defines a Class I recall?

    • A.The product has a minor labeling or packaging defect with no health impact
    • B.Use of the product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences
    • C.There is a reasonable probability that use of the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death✓ Answer
    • D.Use of the product is not likely to cause any adverse health consequences

    A Class I recall is the most serious category, defined as a situation in which there is a reasonable probability that use of or exposure to the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death. Class II covers temporary or medically reversible harm, and Class III covers products unlikely to cause adverse health consequences.

    Source: FDA 21 CFR 7.3(m)(1); Recalls Background and Definitions (recall classification)Report a problem with this question

  16. 16. According to ISMP, what best defines a 'high-alert medication' (for example, insulin, heparin, or concentrated potassium chloride)?

    • A.A drug that is classified as a DEA controlled substance
    • B.A drug that must always be stored under refrigeration
    • C.A drug that bears a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error✓ Answer
    • D.A drug that is the most expensive item on the pharmacy's formulary

    High-alert medications are drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when they are used in error; errors may not be more frequent, but their consequences are far more devastating, so these drugs require extra safeguards such as independent double-checks. The designation reflects harm potential, not cost, storage temperature, or controlled-substance status.

    Source: ISMP List of High-Alert Medications; PTCB Patient Safety & Quality AssuranceReport a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the PTCB exam content outline. Not affiliated with the PTCB, and not medical advice. About the PTCE →