20 Administrative & Front Office Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. In wave scheduling, how are patients typically booked?

   • A.Two patients are deliberately booked into the exact same slot for one provider
   • B.Patients are seen only as walk-ins with no appointments taken
   • C.Each patient is given a unique time slot at fixed intervals throughout the day
   • D.Several patients are scheduled at the start of each hour and seen in the order they arrive✓ Answer

   Wave scheduling books a group of patients at the top of a time block and staff see them in order of arrival, which smooths out the effect of early/late arrivals and no-shows across the block.

   Source: AAMA CMA administrative content outline — appointment scheduling systems (wave method)Report a problem with this question

2. 2. Which statement best describes modified wave scheduling?

   • A.All patients for the hour arrive at the same minute and draw numbers
   • B.Only one patient is booked per hour to guarantee no waiting
   • C.Patients are staggered within the hour, such as two at the top of the hour and then one every 20 minutes✓ Answer
   • D.Appointments are assigned strictly by diagnosis rather than by clock time

   Modified wave staggers arrivals within the hour by clustering some patients at the start and spacing the rest at set intervals, balancing flow better than a pure wave while still absorbing variation.

   Source: Standard medical office administration curriculum — scheduling methods (modified wave)Report a problem with this question

3. 3. Double-booking is most appropriate when:

   • A.The schedule must be kept completely empty to hold room for emergencies
   • B.Two patients are booked in the same slot and both can realistically be handled, for example one is a quick recheck✓ Answer
   • C.A provider is out and no one is available to see patients
   • D.The office wants to guarantee each patient a private, unshared time

   Double-booking assigns two patients to one slot and works only when both can genuinely be served in that time, such as pairing a brief follow-up with a longer visit; otherwise it creates backups and delays.

   Source: Standard medical office administration curriculum — scheduling methods (double-booking)Report a problem with this question

4. 4. In stream (time-specified) scheduling, patients are given:

   • A.The same arrival time as several other patients
   • B.Individual appointment times at steady intervals matched to the expected visit length✓ Answer
   • C.Appointments only in clustered groups at the top of the hour
   • D.No fixed time, being seen first-come, first-served

   Stream scheduling assigns each patient a distinct appointment time spaced according to the expected length of the visit, producing a steady and predictable flow through the day.

   Source: AAMA CMA administrative content outline — appointment scheduling systems (stream/time-specified)Report a problem with this question

5. 5. In a SOAP note, the 'S' (Subjective) section records:

   • A.The diagnosis or clinical impression
   • B.The treatment plan and follow-up orders
   • C.What the patient reports in their own words, such as symptoms and history✓ Answer
   • D.The provider's measurable findings like vital signs and exam results

   The Subjective portion captures information as reported by the patient, such as the chief complaint, symptoms, and history, which is inherently self-reported rather than measured by the clinician.

   Source: Standard medical documentation curriculum — SOAP note format (Subjective)Report a problem with this question

6. 6. Which item belongs in the 'O' (Objective) section of a SOAP note?

   • A.The plan for medications and referrals
   • B.The patient's description of their pain
   • C.Vital signs and physical examination findings✓ Answer
   • D.The physician's assessment or diagnosis

   Objective data are measurable, observable findings gathered by the clinician, such as vital signs, exam results, and test data, as opposed to the patient's self-reported symptoms.

   Source: Standard medical documentation curriculum — SOAP note format (Objective)Report a problem with this question

7. 7. The correct way to fix a handwriting error in a paper medical record is to:

   • A.Black out the entry so nothing underneath is visible
   • B.Use correction fluid to cover the mistake completely
   • C.Draw a single line through the error, write the correction, and add your initials and the date✓ Answer
   • D.Erase the entry so it can no longer be read

   A single line keeps the original entry legible for the legal record, and initialing and dating the change preserves an audit trail, whereas erasing or obliterating destroys evidence and can look like tampering.

   Source: Standard medical records documentation standards — error correction procedureReport a problem with this question

8. 8. Regarding the medical record, which statement is generally true?

   • A.The record belongs to the insurance company that pays the claims
   • B.The patient owns the physical chart and may take the original home
   • C.No one owns the record because it is public information
   • D.The provider or facility owns the physical record, but the patient owns the information and controls its release✓ Answer

   Long-standing practice holds that the provider owns the physical or electronic record itself, while the patient holds rights over the information it contains, including access and authorizing its disclosure.

   Source: Standard medical records law — record ownership vs. patient right of accessReport a problem with this question

9. 9. Protected Health Information (PHI) under HIPAA is best described as:

   • A.Only health data stored in electronic databases
   • B.Only information a patient chooses to label confidential
   • C.General medical facts that cannot identify any specific person
   • D.Individually identifiable health information created or held by a covered entity, in any form✓ Answer

   HIPAA defines PHI as individually identifiable health information held or transmitted by a covered entity in any medium (oral, paper, or electronic), so the key is identity combined with a health context, not the storage format.

   Source: HIPAA Privacy Rule, 45 CFR 160.103 — definition of protected health informationReport a problem with this question

10. 10. The HIPAA 'minimum necessary' principle requires that:

    • A.Patients receive the minimum possible information about their own care
    • B.All available PHI be shared so that nothing is left out
    • C.PHI never be shared for any reason whatsoever
    • D.Only the least amount of PHI needed to accomplish the purpose is used or disclosed✓ Answer

    The standard limits uses, disclosures, and requests to the minimum PHI reasonably needed for the intended purpose, which reduces unnecessary exposure of a patient's data.

    Source: HIPAA Privacy Rule, 45 CFR 164.502(b) — minimum necessary standardReport a problem with this question

11. 11. Which disclosure of PHI is generally permitted WITHOUT the patient's separate written authorization?

    • A.Selling a patient's contact list to a marketing firm
    • B.Sharing needed information for treatment, obtaining payment, or health-care operations✓ Answer
    • C.Posting patient details on social media
    • D.Telling a neighbor a patient's diagnosis out of curiosity

    HIPAA permits disclosures for treatment, payment, and health-care operations (TPO) without a separate authorization because these are core to delivering and being paid for care; marketing sales and casual sharing are not.

    Source: HIPAA Privacy Rule, 45 CFR 164.506 — uses and disclosures for treatment, payment, and operationsReport a problem with this question

12. 12. Which of the following is a prohibited disclosure of PHI?

    • A.Giving billing codes to the patient's insurer for a claim
    • B.Faxing records to a referred specialist for treatment
    • C.Sharing the chart with the treating physician
    • D.Discussing a patient's results with a friend who is not involved in the patient's care✓ Answer

    Disclosing PHI to someone with no treatment, payment, or operations role, such as a friend, unrelated coworker, or the public, has no permissible purpose and violates the Privacy Rule.

    Source: HIPAA Privacy Rule, 45 CFR 164.502 — impermissible uses and disclosuresReport a problem with this question

13. 13. In medical billing, how do ICD codes and CPT codes differ?

    • A.Both report only the provider's fee
    • B.Both report only the diagnosis
    • C.ICD reports the diagnosis (why); CPT reports the procedure or service performed (what was done)✓ Answer
    • D.ICD reports procedures; CPT reports diagnoses

    ICD codes describe the patient's diagnosis or reason for the encounter, while CPT codes describe the procedures and services performed; payers match the two to judge whether the service was medically necessary.

    Source: Standard medical billing curriculum — ICD (diagnosis) vs. CPT (procedure) codingReport a problem with this question

14. 14. The main purpose of a superbill is to:

    • A.List the office's employee payroll
    • B.Record the provider's personal appointment schedule
    • C.Itemize the diagnoses, services, and charges from a visit so a claim can be generated✓ Answer
    • D.Serve as the patient's official insurance card

    A superbill is the itemized summary of a single encounter, listing diagnoses, procedures, and fees, that feeds the insurance claim or is given to the patient to seek reimbursement.

    Source: Standard medical billing curriculum — superbill / encounter formReport a problem with this question

15. 15. An Explanation of Benefits (EOB) is:

    • A.The provider's license to bill insurance
    • B.A statement from the insurer showing how a claim was processed and what was paid or denied✓ Answer
    • C.A coding manual used to look up procedures
    • D.A bill the patient must pay immediately to the insurer

    The EOB is sent by the payer to explain how the claim was adjudicated, including the allowed amount, insurer payment, adjustments, and patient responsibility, and it is not itself a bill.

    Source: Standard health-insurance curriculum — Explanation of BenefitsReport a problem with this question

16. 16. Which statement correctly distinguishes deductible, copay, and coinsurance?

    • A.All three terms mean the same thing
    • B.A deductible is the amount paid before the plan begins to pay; a copay is a fixed per-visit amount; coinsurance is a percentage of the cost✓ Answer
    • C.A copay is the total amount the insurer pays each year
    • D.A deductible is a percentage; a copay is paid before coverage begins; coinsurance is a flat fee

    These are distinct forms of cost sharing: the deductible is what the patient pays before benefits begin, the copay is a set dollar amount per service, and coinsurance is a percentage share of the allowed cost.

    Source: Standard health-insurance curriculum — cost-sharing definitionsReport a problem with this question

17. 17. At the front desk, which practice best protects patient confidentiality?

    • A.Discussing patients loudly by name where others can hear
    • B.Positioning monitors and sign-in sheets so that other patients cannot view others' information✓ Answer
    • C.Calling out each patient's full name and diagnosis in the waiting room
    • D.Leaving open charts on the counter for efficiency

    Reasonable safeguards such as angled screens, limited sign-in data, and lowered voices prevent incidental disclosure of PHI to other patients, which HIPAA requires covered entities to reasonably minimize.

    Source: HIPAA Privacy Rule, 45 CFR 164.530(c) — administrative, technical, and physical safeguardsReport a problem with this question

18. 18. During telephone triage, if a caller describes symptoms of a possible heart attack, the medical assistant should:

    • A.Put the caller on hold indefinitely until a provider is free
    • B.Diagnose the condition over the phone and prescribe treatment
    • C.Advise the caller to call 911 or activate emergency services immediately✓ Answer
    • D.Schedule a routine appointment for the following week

    Telephone triage prioritizes recognizing emergencies and directing the caller to immediate emergency care; a medical assistant does not diagnose or prescribe, and any delay in a suspected heart attack could be life-threatening.

    Source: Standard medical assisting curriculum — telephone triage / screening scope of practiceReport a problem with this question

19. 19. A core reception responsibility that supports patient confidentiality is:

    • A.Verifying who is authorized to receive information before releasing any patient details✓ Answer
    • B.Announcing lab results aloud in the lobby
    • C.Emailing PHI to unverified addresses on request
    • D.Sharing appointment lists with anyone who asks

    The receptionist controls the first point of contact, so confirming a requester's identity and authorization before disclosing anything prevents improper release of PHI.

    Source: Standard medical assisting curriculum — reception role and confidentialityReport a problem with this question

20. 20. A caller says she is a patient's adult sister and asks for the patient's test results. The medical assistant should:

    • A.Confirm the diagnosis but withhold the specific numbers
    • B.Give the results because a family member is always entitled to them
    • C.Give the results if the sister sounds trustworthy on the phone
    • D.Not release the results unless the patient has authorized disclosure to that person✓ Answer

    Being a relative does not by itself authorize access to an adult patient's PHI; disclosure requires the patient's authorization or another permitted basis, so the medical assistant must not release the results.

    Source: HIPAA Privacy Rule, 45 CFR 164.502 — disclosures to family/others require authorization or permitted basisReport a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the AAMA (CMA) and AMT (RMA) certification content outlines and standard medical-assisting curriculum. Not affiliated with or endorsed by AAMA, AMT, or any certifying body. Study the official candidate handbook and confirm current exam content before testing. About the CMA exam →