22 Trauma Practice Questions & Answers

Every Trauma practice question from the EMT (NREMT) Practice Test, with the correct answer and a short explanation.

1. You arrive at a motor-vehicle collision. What is your FIRST priority before making patient contact?
- A.Immediately begin controlling the patient's bleeding
- B.Determine the exact mechanism of injury
- C.Request an air-medical helicopter
- D.Ensure the scene is safe and take Standard/BSI precautions✓ Answer
Scene size-up begins with scene safety and BSI precautions. An EMT who becomes injured cannot help the patient, so the responder must confirm the scene is safe before patient contact.
Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Trauma / Scene Size-Up (scene safety first)Report a problem with this question
2. What is the FIRST method an EMT should use to control external bleeding from an extremity wound?
- A.Elevate the limb above the heart
- B.Apply direct pressure over the wound✓ Answer
- C.Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound
- D.Apply a hemostatic dressing
Direct pressure is the first-line intervention for most external bleeding because firm, focused pressure on the wound stops most hemorrhage; escalate to a tourniquet only if direct pressure fails.
Source: PHTLS bleeding-control sequence; NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (Bleeding)Report a problem with this question
3. When is a tourniquet indicated for an extremity injury?
- A.A minor abrasion with capillary bleeding
- B.A closed fracture with a strong distal pulse
- C.Any laceration that is actively oozing dark blood
- D.Life-threatening extremity hemorrhage not controlled by direct pressure✓ Answer
A tourniquet is used for life-threatening extremity hemorrhage that direct pressure cannot control, because rapidly stopping massive blood loss outweighs the risk of temporary limb ischemia.
Source: PHTLS / TCCC extremity hemorrhage guidelines; NHTSA EMS Education Standards — TraumaReport a problem with this question
4. Where should a tourniquet be placed relative to a bleeding extremity wound?
- A.Over the nearest joint to compress it
- B.Directly on top of the open wound
- C.Distal to the wound, toward the fingers or toes
- D.Proximal to the wound and not directly over a joint✓ Answer
The tourniquet is placed proximal (toward the torso) to the wound and never over a joint, because bones and soft tissue over a joint prevent full arterial compression.
Source: PHTLS / TCCC tourniquet application (proximal to wound, not over a joint)Report a problem with this question
5. After successfully applying a tourniquet in the field, the EMT should:
- A.Remove it once bleeding appears to slow
- B.Loosen it every 10 minutes to restore circulation
- C.Cover it with a blanket so it is out of sight
- D.Note and communicate the time it was applied and not remove it✓ Answer
The time of tourniquet application must be recorded and reported, and the tourniquet is left in place; periodically loosening it causes renewed bleeding and can worsen shock.
Source: PHTLS / TCCC tourniquet management (mark time, do not periodically loosen)Report a problem with this question
6. For which wound is a hemostatic dressing MOST appropriate?
- A.A bruise over the thigh
- B.A closed contusion with no open skin
- C.A junctional wound (groin, axilla, neck) where a tourniquet cannot be applied✓ Answer
- D.A superficial scrape on the forearm
Hemostatic dressings are packed into deep or junctional wounds — such as the groin, axilla, or neck — where a tourniquet cannot be placed, and are combined with direct pressure to promote clotting.
Source: PHTLS hemorrhage control (hemostatic dressing for junctional/non-tourniquetable wounds)Report a problem with this question
7. Shock is best defined as:
- A.A rapid rise in blood pressure
- B.A sudden drop in body temperature
- C.An emotional reaction to a traumatic event
- D.Inadequate tissue perfusion (hypoperfusion) at the cellular level✓ Answer
Shock is hypoperfusion — inadequate delivery of oxygenated blood to the tissues — so cells cannot meet their metabolic needs, which is why early recognition and perfusion support are critical.
Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Shock and Resuscitation (hypoperfusion)Report a problem with this question
8. Which set of findings BEST indicates early (compensated) shock?
- A.Falling blood pressure with a slow, bounding pulse
- B.Bradycardia with warm, flushed, dry skin
- C.Anxiety, tachycardia, and pale, cool, clammy skin with a normal blood pressure✓ Answer
- D.Deep sleep with slow, deep breathing
In compensated shock the body maintains blood pressure by increasing heart rate and constricting peripheral vessels, producing tachycardia and pale, cool, clammy skin along with anxiety before the pressure drops.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Shock (compensated shock signs)Report a problem with this question
9. In an adult trauma patient, a falling (hypotensive) blood pressure is BEST described as:
- A.A normal response to pain
- B.The earliest and most reliable sign of shock
- C.A sign that bleeding has stopped
- D.A late sign of shock indicating decompensation✓ Answer
Hypotension is a late sign of shock; blood pressure falls only after the body's compensatory mechanisms fail, so waiting for it delays life-saving treatment.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Shock (hypotension is a late/decompensated sign)Report a problem with this question
10. Which is the MOST appropriate field management for a trauma patient in hypovolemic shock?
- A.Control bleeding, give high-concentration oxygen, keep the patient warm, and transport rapidly✓ Answer
- B.Delay transport until blood pressure returns to normal
- C.Give the patient food and water and let them rest on scene
- D.Apply cold packs to the whole body to slow bleeding
Management of hypovolemic shock is controlling hemorrhage, supporting oxygenation, preventing heat loss, and rapid transport, because definitive care (blood/surgery) is at the hospital and delays worsen outcomes.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Shock management; PHTLS 'load and go' prioritiesReport a problem with this question
11. Which finding is an indication for spinal motion restriction after trauma?
- A.A completely normal exam in an alert, sober patient with no pain
- B.Midline spinal tenderness, altered mental status, or a neurologic deficit✓ Answer
- C.An isolated, painless bruise on the shin
- D.Mild anxiety with no complaints of pain
Spinal motion restriction is indicated with midline spinal tenderness, altered mental status, neurologic deficit, intoxication, or a distracting injury, because these prevent reliable exclusion of spinal injury.
Source: NEXUS criteria; NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (spinal motion restriction)Report a problem with this question
12. A head-injury patient shows rising blood pressure, a slowing pulse, and irregular breathing. This triad indicates:
- A.Increasing intracranial pressure (Cushing's triad)✓ Answer
- B.Compensated hypovolemic shock
- C.A normal response to a headache
- D.A simple fainting episode
Rising blood pressure (widening pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular respirations form Cushing's triad, a sign of dangerously increased intracranial pressure that requires rapid transport.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (head injury / Cushing's triad, increased ICP)Report a problem with this question
13. In a multi-system trauma patient, which assessment priority comes FIRST?
- A.Obtaining a full medical history
- B.Airway with cervical-spine control (after controlling massive hemorrhage)✓ Answer
- C.Bandaging minor abrasions
- D.Splinting all suspected fractures
After controlling any massive hemorrhage, the primary assessment follows Airway-Breathing-Circulation, so a patent airway with cervical-spine protection is addressed before splinting or minor wounds.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (primary assessment: X-A-B-C priorities)Report a problem with this question
14. How should an EMT initially manage an open ('sucking') chest wound?
- A.Pour water into the wound to flush it
- B.Leave it fully open to the air
- C.Apply an occlusive dressing to seal the wound✓ Answer
- D.Pack the wound tightly with dry gauze
An open chest wound is covered with an occlusive dressing so air cannot be drawn into the pleural space through the wound, which would otherwise cause the lung to collapse.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (open pneumothorax / occlusive dressing)Report a problem with this question
15. After sealing an open chest wound, the patient develops worsening dyspnea, rising heart rate, and falling blood pressure. What should the EMT do?
- A.Apply a second occlusive dressing on top
- B.Remove the dressing permanently and leave the wound open
- C.Briefly lift ('burp') a corner of the occlusive dressing to release trapped air✓ Answer
- D.Do nothing, as this is expected
These signs suggest a developing tension pneumothorax; briefly lifting a corner of the seal lets trapped air escape and relieves the rising pressure, then the seal is replaced.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (tension pneumothorax / burping an occlusive dressing)Report a problem with this question
16. Paradoxical movement of a segment of the chest wall (moving inward on inhalation) indicates:
- A.A clavicle fracture
- B.Flail chest✓ Answer
- C.A simple rib bruise
- D.Normal breathing
Flail chest occurs when two or more adjacent ribs are each broken in two or more places, freeing a segment that moves paradoxically (in on inhalation, out on exhalation) and impairs ventilation.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (flail chest / paradoxical motion)Report a problem with this question
17. How should an EMT manage an abdominal evisceration (protruding organs)?
- A.Cover the organs with a moist, sterile dressing and do not push them back in✓ Answer
- B.Cover the organs with a dry, tightly wrapped bandage
- C.Leave the organs uncovered and exposed
- D.Gently push the organs back into the abdomen
Eviscerated organs are covered with a moist, sterile dressing to prevent drying and are never pushed back in, because replacing them risks infection and further injury.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (abdominal evisceration management)Report a problem with this question
18. Why is a suspected unstable pelvic fracture considered a high-priority injury?
- A.It always heals without any treatment
- B.It only affects the ability to walk later
- C.It rarely causes significant blood loss
- D.It can cause severe internal hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock✓ Answer
The pelvis surrounds large blood vessels, so an unstable fracture can bleed massively into the pelvic space; stabilizing it (e.g., a pelvic binder) helps limit hemorrhage and shock.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (pelvic fracture / internal hemorrhage, pelvic binder)Report a problem with this question
19. Before and after splinting an injured extremity, the EMT should assess:
- A.The color of the splinting material
- B.Distal pulse, motor function, and sensation (PMS/CSM)✓ Answer
- C.Only the patient's blood pressure
- D.The patient's blood glucose level
Distal pulse, motor function, and sensation are checked before and after splinting because a splint can compromise circulation or nerves, and comparing findings detects any new deficit.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (splinting; assess PMS/CSM before and after)Report a problem with this question
20. When splinting a fractured long bone (e.g., the forearm), the EMT should immobilize:
- A.The entire opposite limb as well
- B.Just the fingers or toes
- C.Only the exact point of the fracture
- D.The joints above and below the fracture site✓ Answer
A long-bone splint must immobilize the joints above and below the fracture so movement at those joints cannot transmit motion to the broken bone ends and cause further injury.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (long-bone splinting; immobilize joint above and below)Report a problem with this question
21. Using the adult 'rule of nines,' what percentage of total body surface area does one entire arm represent?
- A.1%
- B.18%
- C.9%✓ Answer
- D.4.5%
In the adult rule of nines, each entire upper extremity is 9% of total body surface area (each lower extremity is 18%), a division used to estimate burn size and guide severity assessment.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (burns; adult rule of nines — arm = 9%)Report a problem with this question
22. After ensuring the burning process has stopped, how should an EMT cover a moderate thermal burn?
- A.With a dry, sterile dressing, and do not apply ice or ointments✓ Answer
- B.By breaking any blisters and rubbing in butter
- C.With ice packs placed directly on the burn
- D.With a tight, wet elastic wrap
After stopping the burning process, cover the burn with a dry, sterile dressing; ice can worsen tissue damage and cause hypothermia, and ointments or home remedies trap heat and increase infection risk.
Source: NHTSA EMS Education Standards — Trauma (burn care; stop burning, dry sterile dressing, no ice/ointment)Report a problem with this question

Practice questions modeled on the National EMS Education Standards and NREMT cognitive-exam content areas. Not medical advice and not affiliated with or endorsed by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) or NHTSA. Always follow your instructor, medical director, and local protocols. Study the official materials at nremt.org. Official NREMT →

1. You arrive at a motor-vehicle collision. What is your FIRST priority before making patient contact?

2. What is the FIRST method an EMT should use to control external bleeding from an extremity wound?

3. When is a tourniquet indicated for an extremity injury?

4. Where should a tourniquet be placed relative to a bleeding extremity wound?

5. After successfully applying a tourniquet in the field, the EMT should:

6. For which wound is a hemostatic dressing MOST appropriate?

7. Shock is best defined as:

8. Which set of findings BEST indicates early (compensated) shock?

9. In an adult trauma patient, a falling (hypotensive) blood pressure is BEST described as:

10. Which is the MOST appropriate field management for a trauma patient in hypovolemic shock?

11. Which finding is an indication for spinal motion restriction after trauma?

12. A head-injury patient shows rising blood pressure, a slowing pulse, and irregular breathing. This triad indicates:

13. In a multi-system trauma patient, which assessment priority comes FIRST?

14. How should an EMT initially manage an open ('sucking') chest wound?

15. After sealing an open chest wound, the patient develops worsening dyspnea, rising heart rate, and falling blood pressure. What should the EMT do?

16. Paradoxical movement of a segment of the chest wall (moving inward on inhalation) indicates:

17. How should an EMT manage an abdominal evisceration (protruding organs)?

18. Why is a suspected unstable pelvic fracture considered a high-priority injury?

19. Before and after splinting an injured extremity, the EMT should assess:

20. When splinting a fractured long bone (e.g., the forearm), the EMT should immobilize:

21. Using the adult 'rule of nines,' what percentage of total body surface area does one entire arm represent?

22. After ensuring the burning process has stopped, how should an EMT cover a moderate thermal burn?