22 Medical & Obstetrics/Gynecology Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. You arrive to find a patient with an altered mental status of unknown cause. What is your FIRST priority in managing this patient?

   • A.Administering oral glucose
   • B.Obtaining a blood glucose reading
   • C.Determining the exact underlying cause
   • D.Ensuring an open airway and adequate breathing✓ Answer

   A patient with altered mental status cannot reliably protect their own airway, so airway and breathing (the ABCs) always take priority; managing life threats comes before identifying the underlying cause.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Altered Mental Status (primary assessment / ABC priority)Report a problem with this question

2. 2. The FAST mnemonic is used to screen for a possible stroke. What does each letter stand for?

   • A.Fatigue, Anxiety, Seizure, Tingling
   • B.Fainting, Airway, Skin, Temperature
   • C.Fever, Ache, Sweating, Tremor
   • D.Face, Arms, Speech, Time✓ Answer

   FAST stands for Face (facial droop), Arms (arm drift), Speech (slurred/abnormal), and Time (note time last known well); it isolates the most common outward signs of stroke and stresses that time is critical to treatment.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Neurologic (stroke screening, FAST/Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale)Report a problem with this question

3. 3. Why is establishing the 'time the patient was last known to be normal' so important in a suspected stroke?

   • A.It helps determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments such as clot-dissolving therapy✓ Answer
   • B.It tells you whether the stroke is contagious
   • C.It determines the correct dose of aspirin to administer
   • D.It is required before oxygen may be given

   Clot-dissolving (fibrinolytic) therapy and other interventions must be started within a limited window from symptom onset, so the last-known-well time lets the hospital decide whether the patient qualifies.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Neurologic (stroke, onset time and reperfusion window)Report a problem with this question

4. 4. A patient is actively having a generalized seizure with full-body convulsions. What is the most appropriate EMT action during the active seizure?

   • A.Hold the patient's limbs still to stop the convulsions
   • B.Protect the patient from injury and do not restrain them or force anything into the mouth✓ Answer
   • C.Insert a bite block or padded object between the teeth
   • D.Perform chest compressions immediately

   During an active seizure you cannot stop the convulsion, so you move hazards away and protect the head; restraining limbs or forcing objects into the mouth can cause fractures, dental injury, or airway obstruction.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Neurologic (seizure management)Report a problem with this question

5. 5. Which set of findings is most characteristic of HYPOglycemia (low blood sugar)?

   • A.Rapid onset of pale, cool, sweaty skin with confusion or bizarre behavior✓ Answer
   • B.Gradual onset over days with deep, rapid breathing and fruity breath odor
   • C.Slow, deep snoring respirations with constricted pupils
   • D.Warm, dry, flushed skin with excessive thirst and frequent urination

   Hypoglycemia deprives the brain of glucose quickly, producing a rapid onset of altered mentation plus cool, pale, diaphoretic skin from the sympathetic (adrenaline) response; the fruity breath and deep rapid breathing instead point to hyperglycemia/DKA.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Endocrine (hypoglycemia vs. hyperglycemia)Report a problem with this question

6. 6. Before assisting a patient with oral glucose, which condition must be met?

   • A.The patient's blood pressure must be below normal
   • B.The patient must be awake enough to swallow and protect their own airway✓ Answer
   • C.The patient must be completely unresponsive
   • D.The patient must have already received an epinephrine auto-injector

   Oral glucose is a gel or paste that must be swallowed, so giving it to a patient who cannot protect their airway risks aspiration; a conscious patient able to swallow is the key indication.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Endocrine (oral glucose indications/contraindications)Report a problem with this question

7. 7. A patient with a history of diabetes has deep, rapid (Kussmaul) breathing, a fruity odor on the breath, and a gradual onset of altered mental status over the past day. These findings are most consistent with what condition?

   • A.Anaphylactic shock
   • B.Acute hypoglycemia
   • C.Opioid overdose
   • D.Hyperglycemia with diabetic ketoacidosis✓ Answer

   In diabetic ketoacidosis the body burns fat for fuel and produces ketones, causing the fruity (acetone) breath and deep rapid Kussmaul breathing that blows off acid; hyperglycemia characteristically develops gradually rather than suddenly.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Endocrine (diabetic ketoacidosis)Report a problem with this question

8. 8. Which combination of signs indicates anaphylaxis rather than a mild, localized allergic reaction?

   • A.A single small hive with no other symptoms
   • B.Itching and redness confined to the site of a bee sting
   • C.Widespread hives plus difficulty breathing (wheezing) and signs of shock such as low blood pressure✓ Answer
   • D.Mild sneezing and watery eyes only

   Anaphylaxis is a systemic reaction that involves more than one body system — typically respiratory compromise (airway swelling/bronchospasm) and cardiovascular collapse (hypotension/shock) — which distinguishes it from a mild reaction limited to the skin.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Immunology (allergic reaction vs. anaphylaxis)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. When assisting a patient with an epinephrine auto-injector, what is the correct injection site?

   • A.The lateral (outer) part of the mid-thigh✓ Answer
   • B.The upper outer buttock
   • C.The inner surface of the forearm
   • D.The abdomen near the navel

   Epinephrine auto-injectors are designed to deliver the drug into the large muscle of the lateral mid-thigh, which allows rapid, reliable absorption and can be given through clothing.

   Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Immunology (epinephrine auto-injector administration)Report a problem with this question

10. 10. How does epinephrine help reverse the life-threatening effects of anaphylaxis?

    • A.It lowers the heart rate to reduce the workload on the heart
    • B.It neutralizes stomach acid to reduce nausea
    • C.It thins the blood to dissolve clots
    • D.It constricts blood vessels to raise blood pressure and relaxes the airways to ease breathing✓ Answer

    Epinephrine's alpha effects cause vasoconstriction (raising the dangerously low blood pressure of anaphylaxis) while its beta-2 effects relax bronchial smooth muscle to open constricted airways, directly countering the two main killers in anaphylaxis.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Immunology (pharmacology of epinephrine)Report a problem with this question

11. 11. You find an unresponsive patient with slow, shallow breathing (about 6 breaths per minute) and pinpoint (constricted) pupils. Drug paraphernalia is nearby. What is the priority intervention?

    • A.Support ventilations with a bag-mask and prepare to administer naloxone✓ Answer
    • B.Administer oral glucose
    • C.Encourage the patient to walk it off
    • D.Withhold all care until police arrive

    The triad of unresponsiveness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils indicates opioid overdose; the immediate life threat is inadequate breathing, so ventilatory support comes first and naloxone reverses the opioid effect.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Toxicology (opioid overdose, naloxone)Report a problem with this question

12. 12. What is the primary therapeutic effect of naloxone in an opioid overdose?

    • A.It blocks opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression✓ Answer
    • B.It sedates an agitated patient
    • C.It raises blood sugar rapidly
    • D.It stops an allergic reaction

    Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively displaces opioids from their receptors, which restores the patient's respiratory drive; its main lifesaving benefit is reversing the breathing depression that kills in overdose.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Toxicology (naloxone mechanism)Report a problem with this question

13. 13. For most poisonings, what is the single most important piece of information the EMT should try to gather and relay to the receiving facility or poison control?

    • A.What substance was involved, how much, and when the exposure occurred✓ Answer
    • B.The patient's blood type
    • C.The patient's favorite over-the-counter remedy
    • D.Whether the patient has health insurance

    Identifying the substance, the amount, and the time of exposure guides both immediate treatment and poison-control recommendations, because management differs sharply depending on what and how much was taken and how long ago.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Toxicology (poisoning history/assessment)Report a problem with this question

14. 14. During an acute asthma attack, what is the underlying problem that causes the patient's wheezing and difficulty breathing?

    • A.Fluid filling the sacs of the lungs from heart failure
    • B.Collapse of a lung from air in the chest cavity
    • C.A blood clot lodged in the pulmonary artery
    • D.Constriction of the small airways (bronchospasm) with swelling and mucus, narrowing airflow✓ Answer

    Asthma is characterized by reversible bronchoconstriction combined with airway inflammation and mucus production, which narrows the bronchioles and produces the classic wheeze on exhalation.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Respiratory (asthma pathophysiology)Report a problem with this question

15. 15. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is best described by which statement?

    • A.An acute infection that heals completely within days
    • B.A chronic, progressive condition (such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis) that permanently impairs airflow, often related to long-term smoking✓ Answer
    • C.A temporary condition caused only by high altitude
    • D.A sudden, one-time allergic reaction that fully resolves

    COPD is an umbrella term for chronic, irreversible obstructive diseases such as emphysema and chronic bronchitis; the airflow limitation is progressive and long-standing rather than a one-time or fully reversible event.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Respiratory (COPD)Report a problem with this question

16. 16. When assisting a patient with their prescribed metered-dose inhaler (MDI), what should the EMT do to improve the effectiveness of the dose?

    • A.Have the patient lie flat and spray while they hold their breath out
    • B.Spray several doses into the air first and let the patient breathe the mist
    • C.Have the patient exhale, then coordinate a slow deep breath with the actuation and hold it briefly, using a spacer if available✓ Answer
    • D.Have the patient inhale as fast and forcefully as possible while spraying

    Medication from an MDI is deposited deepest in the airways when the patient exhales first, then inhales slowly and deeply in time with the spray and holds the breath to let the drug settle; a spacer further improves delivery.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Respiratory (assisting with prescribed inhaler/MDI)Report a problem with this question

17. 17. The first stage of labor is defined as which of the following?

    • A.From the mother's water breaking until the first contraction
    • B.From the onset of regular contractions until the cervix is fully dilated✓ Answer
    • C.From full cervical dilation until delivery of the baby
    • D.From delivery of the baby until delivery of the placenta

    Labor is divided into three stages; the first stage runs from the onset of regular contractions to full cervical dilation, the second from full dilation to delivery of the baby, and the third from birth to delivery of the placenta.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Obstetrics: Normal childbirth (stages of labor)Report a problem with this question

18. 18. You observe crowning during your assessment of a woman in labor. What does this finding tell you?

    • A.Delivery is imminent and you should prepare to deliver the baby on scene✓ Answer
    • B.There is plenty of time to transport before delivery
    • C.The labor has stalled and contractions have stopped
    • D.The baby is in a breech position

    Crowning is the bulging of the baby's head at the vaginal opening and signals that birth is about to occur, so the EMT should stay on scene and prepare to assist the delivery rather than attempt transport.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Obstetrics: Normal childbirth (crowning / imminent delivery)Report a problem with this question

19. 19. After the baby's head delivers, you notice the umbilical cord is wrapped around the newborn's neck (nuchal cord). What is the appropriate action?

    • A.Leave the cord in place and push the head back in
    • B.Pull firmly on the cord to free the baby quickly
    • C.Wait for the mother to deliver the placenta before acting
    • D.Gently slip the cord over the baby's head; if it is too tight, clamp it in two places and cut between the clamps✓ Answer

    A nuchal cord can strangle the baby or tear during delivery, so you first try to gently slip it over the head; only if it is too tight to reduce do you clamp and cut it to allow delivery to proceed.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Obstetrics: Normal childbirth (nuchal cord management)Report a problem with this question

20. 20. Immediately after delivery, a newborn is breathing but appears somewhat blue and floppy. What are the first and most important steps of newborn care?

    • A.Dry, warm, position the airway, and stimulate the newborn✓ Answer
    • B.Immediately begin chest compressions
    • C.Delay all care until arrival at the hospital
    • D.Give the newborn oral glucose

    The initial steps of newborn care are to dry, warm, position the airway, and stimulate; newborns lose heat rapidly and drying plus stimulation usually improves color and respiratory effort before any more aggressive measures are needed.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Obstetrics/Neonatal: Newborn care (dry, warm, position, stimulate)Report a problem with this question

21. 21. The APGAR score is used to assess a newborn. At what times is it normally calculated, and what does it evaluate?

    • A.Only once, 30 minutes after birth, scoring only heart rate
    • B.Every hour for the first day, scoring only skin color
    • C.At birth and at discharge, scoring only birth weight
    • D.At 1 and 5 minutes after birth, scoring appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration✓ Answer

    APGAR is scored at 1 and 5 minutes and grades five signs — Appearance (color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), and Respiration — giving a quick standardized picture of the newborn's condition.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Obstetrics/Neonatal: APGAR scoringReport a problem with this question

22. 22. When caring for a patient with acute abdominal pain, which action is appropriate for the EMT?

    • A.Place the patient in a position of comfort and give nothing by mouth✓ Answer
    • B.Give the patient food and water to settle the stomach
    • C.Apply firm, deep pressure to locate the source of pain
    • D.Encourage the patient to take a laxative

    Because the abdominal pain may stem from a condition needing surgery, the patient should receive nothing by mouth and be allowed a position of comfort; giving food/water or pressing deeply can worsen the condition or the pain.

    Source: NHTSA National EMS Education Standards — Medical: Abdominal/Gastrointestinal (acute abdomen management)Report a problem with this question

Practice questions modeled on the National EMS Education Standards and NREMT cognitive-exam content areas. Not medical advice and not affiliated with or endorsed by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) or NHTSA. Always follow your instructor, medical director, and local protocols. Study the official materials at nremt.org. Official NREMT →