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22 Trauma Practice Questions & Answers

Every Trauma practice question from the AEMT Practice Test, with the correct answer and a short explanation.

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  1. 1. An unrestrained driver strikes a utility pole head-on. The dashboard is deformed and both of his knees struck it. Along this pathway, which injury pattern should you anticipate?

    • A.Cervical hyperextension and facial fractures from the head striking the windshield
    • B.Posterior hip dislocation, femur fracture and knee injury as force travels up the legsAnswer
    • C.Aortic disruption and bilateral rib fractures from the abdomen striking the belt
    • D.Splenic laceration and left rib fractures from intrusion into the driver's door

    In a frontal collision the unrestrained occupant travels either up-and-over or down-and-under. Knees into a deformed dash means the down-and-under path: energy is transmitted along the femurs, so the predictable injuries are knee, femoral shaft and posterior hip dislocation. Kinematics lets you predict occult injury before findings appear.

    Source: National EMS Education Standards (2021), Trauma: Multi-System Trauma; AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Trauma Overview — kinematics of traumaReport a problem with this question

  2. 2. A worker was standing near an explosion inside a shipping container. He has no external wounds but is short of breath, coughing blood, and has decreased breath sounds. Which blast injury phase explains this?

    • A.Tertiary injury, from the body being thrown against a fixed object
    • B.Primary injury, from the pressure wave damaging air-filled organsAnswer
    • C.Secondary injury, from flying fragments driven into the chest wall
    • D.Quaternary injury, from burns and from inhaling toxic gas afterward

    The primary blast phase is the overpressure wave itself, and it injures gas-filled structures preferentially — lungs, middle ear and bowel. Blast lung therefore appears as dyspnea, hemoptysis and diminished breath sounds with an intact chest wall, and an enclosed space intensifies the wave.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Trauma: Multi-System Trauma — blast injuries and their phasesReport a problem with this question

  3. 3. A man has a stab wound to the left chest. He is confused, tachycardic, and has a weak radial pulse. A community hospital is 8 minutes away and a Level I trauma center is 22 minutes away. What is the best destination decision?

    • A.The trauma center, since penetrating torso injury with altered mental status is high riskAnswer
    • B.The trauma center, but only after a fluid bolus has cleared his mental status
    • C.The community hospital, since mechanism alone places him in the moderate-risk group
    • D.The community hospital, since the shorter transport time governs the destination choice

    The current national field triage guideline sorts patients into a high-risk group defined by injury pattern plus mental status and vital signs, and a moderate-risk group defined by mechanism and EMS judgment. Penetrating torso trauma with shock and altered mentation is high risk, so the patient goes to the highest level of trauma care available, and treatment continues en route rather than delaying that decision.

    Source: National Guideline for the Field Triage of Injured Patients (American College of Surgeons, 2021) — high-risk criteria: injury pattern and mental status/vital signsReport a problem with this question

  4. 4. A 24-year-old motorcyclist reports pelvic pain. His pulse is 124, blood pressure 118/96 (initially 124/72), skin cool and clammy, and he is anxious. What does this change in pulse pressure indicate?

    • A.Improving cardiac output as his pain settles and the peripheral vessels relax
    • B.An early loss of vascular tone, which characteristically widens the pulse pressure
    • C.Adequate perfusion, since the systolic reading is still within a normal range
    • D.Rising vascular resistance is defending pressure while circulating volume fallsAnswer

    Compensation for volume loss works by raising heart rate and systemic vascular resistance, which lifts the diastolic pressure toward the systolic and narrows the pulse pressure. Narrowing pulse pressure with tachycardia, anxiety and cool clammy skin is compensated shock; waiting for the systolic pressure to fall means waiting for decompensation.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Shock and Resuscitation — compensated versus decompensated shockReport a problem with this question

  5. 5. A 6-year-old fell from a second-story window. His pulse is fast, capillary refill delayed, and his blood pressure was normal until it dropped abruptly on your third set of vitals. Why is this fall in pressure so ominous?

    • A.Children hold pressure by vasoconstriction until a large deficit exhausts itAnswer
    • B.Children lose vascular tone very early, so pressure falls before real blood loss
    • C.A child's pressure normally dips with fear and recovers without treatment
    • D.A child's heart rate cannot rise, so pressure is the earliest sign of loss

    A child compensates for hypovolemia with intense tachycardia and vasoconstriction and can hold a normal blood pressure until a large fraction of blood volume is gone. Hypotension in a child is therefore a very late, near-terminal sign, and the earlier cues — tachycardia, delayed capillary refill, cool extremities and altered behavior — are what should have driven treatment.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Special Considerations in Trauma — pediatric alterations in the shock responseReport a problem with this question

  6. 6. A man dove into shallow water. He is hypotensive with a pulse of 52, and his skin is warm, dry and flushed below the nipple line. There is no external bleeding. What do these findings indicate?

    • A.Obstructed venous return from rising chest pressure, with distended neck veins
    • B.Continuing internal blood loss, since hypotension after trauma means hemorrhage
    • C.Failure of the heart as a pump, producing hypotension with cool mottled skin
    • D.Loss of sympathetic vascular tone below the injury, enlarging the vascular containerAnswer

    Spinal cord injury interrupts sympathetic outflow, so vessels below the lesion dilate and unopposed vagal tone keeps the heart rate slow. That combination — hypotension with bradycardia and warm, dry, flushed skin — separates neurogenic (distributive) shock from hypovolemic shock, where the skin is cool and clammy and the heart rate is fast. Occult hemorrhage must still be sought.

    Source: National EMS Education Standards (2021), Trauma: Nervous System Trauma — spinal cord injury; AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Shock and ResuscitationReport a problem with this question

  7. 7. A stab wound lies just left of the sternum. The patient is hypotensive with distended neck veins, muffled heart tones, a narrow pulse pressure, and breath sounds that are clear and equal. What is the most likely problem?

    • A.Pulmonary contusion, because chest penetration leaks fluid into the alveoli
    • B.Tension pneumothorax, because neck vein distention with hypotension defines it
    • C.Cardiac tamponade, because the breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterallyAnswer
    • D.Massive hemothorax, because blood in the chest drops pressure and fills the neck veins

    Tamponade and tension pneumothorax both obstruct filling and both can show hypotension with distended neck veins, so the lungs are the discriminator: tamponade leaves breath sounds clear and equal, while tension pneumothorax gives unilaterally decreased or absent sounds. Hemothorax drains blood out of the vasculature, so the neck veins are typically flat. The AEMT's role is recognition, oxygenation and ventilation support, ALS intercept and rapid transport.

    Source: National EMS Education Standards (2021), Trauma: Chest Trauma — cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad) versus tension pneumothoraxReport a problem with this question

  8. 8. A 78-year-old fell down a flight of stairs and takes a beta blocker daily. His pulse is 72, blood pressure 104/88, and he is pale, diaphoretic and confused. How should you interpret his heart rate?

    • A.The rate is reassuring, because confusion at his age usually reflects dementia
    • B.The rate is proof of minor injury, so a focused extremity exam comes first now
    • C.The rate is misleading, because the medication blunts the response to blood lossAnswer
    • D.The rate confirms neurogenic shock, since bradycardia with hypotension defines it

    Beta blockade prevents the compensatory rise in heart rate, so an older bleeding patient can look rate-normal while perfusion is failing. The reliable cues here are the pale diaphoretic skin, the narrowed pulse pressure and the new confusion, and a chronically hypertensive patient may also be relatively hypotensive at a reading that looks acceptable.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Special Considerations in Trauma — geriatric cardiovascular changes and medication effectsReport a problem with this question

  9. 9. A cyclist struck the handlebars with his abdomen. His abdomen is soft and only mildly tender, but his pulse is climbing and capillary refill is lengthening. What is the most appropriate action?

    • A.Palpate all four quadrants deeply and repeatedly to localize the source of the bleeding
    • B.Withhold treatment until rigidity and rebound tenderness confirm intraabdominal bleeding
    • C.Document a benign abdominal exam and downgrade him to a routine, non-emergency transport
    • D.Treat him for developing shock and reassess serially, since a soft abdomen excludes nothingAnswer

    Blood in the peritoneum is a poor irritant early, so a solid-organ injury can bleed substantially with a soft, minimally tender abdomen; hollow-organ injury declares itself even later. The mechanism plus a rising pulse and lengthening capillary refill outweigh a reassuring exam, so the patient is treated as an evolving shock patient with serial reassessment and prompt transport.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma — high index of suspicion, solid versus hollow organ injuryReport a problem with this question

  10. 10. A driver struck the steering wheel with his chest. He has retrosternal pain, a fast irregular pulse, hypotension, crackles at both bases, distended neck veins and equal breath sounds. Which type of shock is this?

    • A.Distributive — the vascular bed has widened too much
    • B.Cardiogenic — the injured heart muscle is failing as a pumpAnswer
    • C.Obstructive — flow is blocked outside of the heart
    • D.Hypovolemic — circulating volume has left the vessels

    Blunt cardiac injury bruises the myocardium, producing infarct-like retrosternal pain, dysrhythmias and pump failure, and the backward congestion shows as distended neck veins and basilar crackles with equal breath sounds. Because the failure is the pump rather than the tank, aggressive fluid worsens the picture, so fluid is limited and given cautiously by reassessment.

    Source: National EMS Education Standards (2021), Trauma: Chest Trauma — blunt cardiac injury; AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Shock and ResuscitationReport a problem with this question

  11. 11. A multisystem trauma patient is decompensating. Two peripheral IV attempts have failed because his veins are collapsed, and fluid is needed now during transport. What is the appropriate next step?

    • A.Establish intraosseous access, which reaches the central circulation quicklyAnswer
    • B.Keep trying peripheral sites in both legs until a cannula finally threads
    • C.Request an order for a central venous line, since it will deliver fluid faster
    • D.Defer vascular access and rely on positioning and oxygen until you arrive

    The marrow cavity is a non-collapsing venous space that drains into the central circulation, so intraosseous access works precisely when peripheral veins have collapsed from hypovolemia. Intraosseous initiation is within the AEMT scope for adults and children when authorized by the state and medical direction, and it is indicated when peripheral access fails and fluid is needed immediately; central lines are outside the AEMT scope.

    Source: National EMS Scope of Practice Model (2019, Change Notices 1–2, 2021) — AEMT: intraosseous initiation, adult and pediatricReport a problem with this question

  12. 12. A patient with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is hypotensive and already packaged. Your partner suggests staying on scene to establish two large-bore lines first. What is the best course?

    • A.Transport with no attempt at access, since access is not indicated in trauma
    • B.Stay until both lines are running, because fluid corrects the real problem
    • C.Stay long enough to place one line and to complete a full secondary survey first
    • D.Begin transport now and attempt access en route, since bleeding needs surgeryAnswer

    The Golden Principles of out-of-hospital trauma care put life-threat management and rapid transport ahead of procedures, and the secondary survey after life threats are addressed. Crystalloid does not stop truncal hemorrhage and does not replace red cells, so definitive care is surgical; vascular access is valuable but is obtained while moving so it never adds scene time for a time-critical patient.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Trauma Overview — Golden Principles of out-of-hospital trauma care (sequence and transport considerations)Report a problem with this question

  13. 13. You place an intraosseous needle in the proximal tibia. Fluid runs sluggishly, the calf is becoming firm and swollen, and the patient grimaces with each flush. What has most likely happened?

    • A.The needle has displaced and fluid is extravasating into the soft tissueAnswer
    • B.An infection has developed, so warm packs and continued infusion are right
    • C.The marrow space is simply full, so raising the bag will restore the flow
    • D.The tibia is fractured proximally, so the leg should be splinted and run

    Sluggish flow with a firming, swelling limb and pain on flushing is the classic picture of a dislodged or through-and-through intraosseous catheter delivering fluid into the compartment rather than the marrow. Continuing the infusion risks compartment syndrome and tissue necrosis, so the infusion is stopped, the limb reassessed and access re-established at another site.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Shock and Resuscitation — vascular access and complications of intraosseous infusionReport a problem with this question

  14. 14. An adult has uncontrolled internal bleeding from blunt abdominal trauma and you are giving fluid en route. What is the goal of that fluid therapy?

    • A.Return the blood pressure to the patient's usual baseline value
    • B.Replace the lost blood volume, since crystalloid carries oxygen
    • C.Raise the pressure until visible external bleeding slows down
    • D.Restore perfusion enough to sustain mentation and a peripheral pulseAnswer

    Crystalloid expands volume but carries no oxygen and no clotting factors, so the endpoint is perfusion of vital organs rather than a number on the cuff. Driving pressure back to normal in uncontrolled hemorrhage can dislodge clot and increase bleeding, which is the reasoning behind permissive hypotension; that approach is not applied to patients with traumatic brain injury or spinal cord injury.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Shock and Resuscitation — fluid resuscitation, permissive hypotension, general principles of shock managementReport a problem with this question

  15. 15. After a fluid challenge, your patient's blood pressure rose briefly and has now fallen below where it started, his pulse is faster and his skin is cooler. What does this pattern indicate?

    • A.Bleeding is continuing and it is outpacing the fluid you are givingAnswer
    • B.He is now fluid overloaded and the infusion should be slowed
    • C.The fluid is working and this reflects normal redistribution
    • D.A neurogenic cause is emerging as spinal shock develops later

    Reassessment after a fluid challenge is how the field provider tests the hypothesis: a transient response that then deteriorates means volume is still being lost faster than it is replaced. That finding argues for continued shock management, notification and the shortest route to surgical control, not for reassurance from the brief improvement.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Shock and Resuscitation — reassessment of fluid therapy after initial treatmentReport a problem with this question

  16. 16. Why is aggressive, large-volume crystalloid infusion harmful in a patient with uncontrolled hemorrhage?

    • A.It thickens the blood and slows flow through the smallest capillaries
    • B.It drives potassium into the cells and produces a metabolic alkalosis
    • C.It raises the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood beyond what is needed
    • D.It dilutes clotting factors, dislodges clot and cools the patientAnswer

    Crystalloid adds volume without red cells or clotting factors, so large volumes dilute the clotting cascade while the higher pressure can disrupt a clot that had formed. Room-temperature fluid also lowers core temperature, and hypothermia further impairs coagulation — the reason hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy are described together as the trauma triad.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Shock and Resuscitation — hazards of fluid resuscitation; trauma triad (hypothermia, acidosis, coagulopathy)Report a problem with this question

  17. 17. A patient has four ribs broken in two places each; that segment moves inward on inspiration, and his oxygen saturation is falling despite oxygen. What is the priority?

    • A.Tape a bulky weighted dressing over the segment to stop its movement
    • B.Give a rapid fluid challenge to improve perfusion of the bruised lung
    • C.Position him on the uninjured side so the loose segment is splinted by the cot
    • D.Support oxygenation and ventilation, since the lung under it is contusedAnswer

    Paradoxical motion is the visible sign, but the lethal lesion in flail chest is the pulmonary contusion beneath it, which reduces compliance and impairs gas exchange. Management is therefore oxygenation and ventilatory support with careful reassessment rather than mechanical splinting of the segment, and fluid is limited because a contused lung leaks with over-hydration.

    Source: National EMS Education Standards (2021), Trauma: Chest Trauma — flail chest and pulmonary contusionReport a problem with this question

  18. 18. A patient struck in the head opens his eyes only to pain and his responses are worsening. During extrication he had one brief episode of low blood pressure. Which goal most protects his injured brain?

    • A.Hyperventilating him steadily all the way to the hospital to constrict vessels
    • B.Maintaining oxygenation and preventing any further episode of hypotensionAnswer
    • C.Keeping his pressure low on purpose so torn vessels stop bleeding
    • D.Withholding fluid until his pupils are unequal and his breathing is irregular

    The primary impact cannot be undone, so field care targets secondary injury, and hypoxia and hypotension each independently worsen outcome — even a single hypotensive episode counts. Permissive hypotension is therefore contraindicated in traumatic brain injury, and routine hyperventilation is not the default because lowering carbon dioxide constricts cerebral vessels and can reduce perfusion; it is reserved for herniation signs per protocol.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Nervous System Trauma — traumatic brain injury management (oxygenation, ventilation, fluid management)Report a problem with this question

  19. 19. A patient fell from a roof. Gentle palpation shows an unstable pelvis, he is hypotensive, and there is no external bleeding. What is the appropriate field management?

    • A.Roll him repeatedly to inspect the back and recheck pelvic stability
    • B.Apply and inflate a pneumatic antishock garment to splint the pelvic ring
    • C.Apply a traction splint to each leg to pull the pelvic ring together
    • D.Apply a circumferential binder over the trochanters and limit movementAnswer

    An unstable pelvis bleeds into the retroperitoneum, where the loss is occult and can be massive, and every additional movement disrupts clot. A circumferential binder placed at the level of the greater trochanters closes the ring and limits volume, and the pelvis is checked once and then left alone; the pneumatic antishock garment appears in legacy material but is not current practice.

    Source: National EMS Education Standards (2021), Trauma: Orthopedic Trauma — pelvic fractures (stabilize to minimize movement and manage blood loss)Report a problem with this question

  20. 20. A patient has extensive partial- and full-thickness burns from a house fire. Her clothing has been removed, the night is cold, she is shivering and her blood pressure is falling. What is the most appropriate care en route?

    • A.Leave the burns uncovered so that the wounds can be inspected repeatedly en route
    • B.Cover the burns with dry sterile dressings, add blankets, and warm the compartmentAnswer
    • C.Wrap her in wet sheets and lower the compartment temperature to control her pain
    • D.Lay cool saturated dressings over all of the burns to stop the ongoing thermal injury

    Burned skin has lost its barrier, so a large-surface burn patient loses heat and fluid rapidly, and hypothermia is an explicitly listed burn complication that also worsens coagulation and shock. Wet dressings over a large body-surface burn accelerate that heat loss, so the burns are covered with dry sterile non-adherent dressings and the patient is actively kept warm.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Soft Tissue Trauma — burns: complications (hypothermia) and management (dry sterile dressings, prevent heat loss)Report a problem with this question

  21. 21. A worker has been pinned under a collapsed load for about five hours. Heavy equipment is about to lift the weight off his legs. What is the most important consideration as the weight comes off?

    • A.Give fluid before release, since reperfusion washes potassium into the bloodAnswer
    • B.Put cold packs on the limbs after release to slow the washout of the products
    • C.Elevate both crushed legs after release to speed the venous return of the toxins
    • D.Release the weight fast and delay any vascular access until he is fully out

    Prolonged compression causes muscle breakdown, and when circulation is restored the potassium, myoglobin and acid trapped in that tissue flood into the systemic circulation, which can cause dysrhythmias, arrest and renal failure. Establishing access and beginning fluid before the weight is lifted, where protocol and medical direction allow, dilutes that load and supports perfusion during reperfusion.

    Source: AEMT Instructional Guidelines, Soft Tissue Trauma — crush injury and crush syndrome (reperfusion, hyperkalemia, myoglobinuria, acidemia)Report a problem with this question

  22. 22. An alert patient with an isolated, splinted closed femur fracture reports severe pain. His vital signs are stable, he has no head injury, and analgesia is in your protocol. What should guide your decision to give it?

    • A.The indication, contraindications, medical direction, and reassessment afterAnswer
    • B.His request alone, since pain is subjective and his report is enough to treat
    • C.The transport time, since analgesia is withheld on short trips to the hospital
    • D.The visible deformity, since an obvious injury authorizes analgesia by itself

    Parenteral analgesia appears in the AEMT scope only as a medication approved by the medical director, so the decision is made by matching the indication, screening for contraindications such as hypotension, altered mental status or respiratory depression, working within standing orders or contacting medical control, and then reassessing pain, mental status and ventilation after the drug is given.

    Source: National EMS Scope of Practice Model (2019, Change Notices 1–2, 2021) — AEMT: medical director-approved medications including parenteral analgesia, administered under medical directionReport a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the National Registry Advanced EMT Examination Specifications and the National EMS Education Standards. This site is not affiliated with or endorsed by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians, and nothing here is medical advice. AEMT scope of practice is set by your state and by your medical director, and drug doses, concentrations, infusion rates and clinical thresholds come from your protocols — never from a practice test. Resuscitation guidance is revised on a cycle; always follow the guidelines and protocols currently in effect where you practice. Confirm eligibility and current exam requirements with the National Registry before you test. About AEMT certification →